We're going in circles here.
1. What Scripture, if any, do you consider definitely corroborates the Premillennial interpretation of Revelation 20 that there are two distinct physical resurrection days (the first for the righteous, the second for the wicked) separated by a literal 1000 years+?
2. Where in Scripture does it mention "resurrection days" (plural), pertaining to the end?
Aren't these really the same question?
Revelation 20:4-5 KJV
4) And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.
5) But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.
Your answer is right there.
3. What Scripture (including Revelation 20) do you consider definitely teaches there are two distinct future judgement days (that will see all mankind stand before Christ to give account for their lives) separated by a literal 1000 years+?
4. Where in Scripture does it mention "judgement days" (plural), in regard to the end?
These are also the same thing, aren't they? Regardless, this doesn't really have anything to do with how I understand things. Jesus will judge the gentile survivors of the great tribulation sorting wicked and righteous. At the great white throne, Jesus will judge the wicked, all of them. The dead.
5. What Scripture, if any, do you consider definitely corroborates the Premillennial interpretation of Revelation 20 that Satan will be bound for a time-span of 1000 years after the Second Advent, then released for a "little season" to deceive the nations, and then destroy them?
Again, no interpretation needed, only translation as that is the plain statement made. Rather, the question is, why not believe the plain sayings of the Bible, and use the less ambiguous to interpret the more ambiguous?
If you think a passage contradicts these, quote it. Put them side by side and lets examine them together.
Much love!
This is classic Premil: interpret Rev 20 by your opinion of Rev 20. That is not corroboration. That is not support that is a problem. You for a hyper-literal meaning on a highly symbolic passage. Not wise!