covenantee
Well-Known Member
Here are many promises.Your post doesn't address the issue, lacking anything to say about God's promise to Paul's nation.
Any reference to the "nation of Israel" is conspicuously absent.
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Here are many promises.Your post doesn't address the issue, lacking anything to say about God's promise to Paul's nation.
Why did you not italicize "not"?Wow. Really? Did you not read verse 6?
Romans 9:6 But it is not as though the word of God has failed.
So what other literal detail do we need to spiritualize away?I don't think the fire is really melting everything on earth. I think it's expressing the fact that God's word can melt anyone's mind and heart.
(John 10:10)
The thief cometh not, but for to steal, and to kill, and to destroy: I am come that they might have life, and that they might have it more abundantly.
So, what do you do with Ez 40-47? Is it a literal temple with literal sacrifices in your future millennium?I don't disagree with you about those 2 chapters 4 and 5. I'm not a Pretribber. My view of Ezekiel 38-39 is that Christ returns during those events and that it is during the DOTL that He executes His judgment on Gog and his multitude. IOW, I see Ezekiel 39:17-20 involving the same events Revelation 19 is involving.
I think it needs to be looked at on a case-by-case basis.So what other literal detail do we need to spiritualize away?
I concur with that perspective. However, it's important to note that Paul's argument in Romans 9 acknowledges that God's promise to save the nation of Israel and his fellow kinsmen is still an unfulfilled commitment. This indicates a complexity in the understanding of divine promise and fulfillment, highlighting the ongoing significance of Israel in God's redemptive plan. Paul seems to suggest that while God’s promises are certain, their realization may extend beyond present circumstances, inviting a deeper reflection on the themes of faith, election, and salvation throughout biblical history.It became and becomes true and fulfilled for every Jew who received and receives salvation through Christ's New Covenant and Blood.
Which began 2,000 years ago at Calvary.
I concur that Paul’s message was indeed accurate and came to fruition at the time it was composed. However, I must respectfully disagree with your assertion that he is indicating the entire passage from Jeremiah was completely fulfilled during the first century. Instead, it seems that Paul's interpretation suggests that certain elements of the prophecy may have been realized, while other aspects could still hold relevance or await fulfillment in future contexts. This distinction is important to understand the broader implications of his message and the ongoing nature of biblical prophecy.The Jeremiah passage is quoted virtually verbatim in Hebrews 8:8-12. Why did you ignore it?
It is prefaced by Hebrews 8:6 and concluded by Hebrews 8:13:
Hebrews 8
6 But now hath he obtained a more excellent ministry, by how much also he is the mediator of a better covenant, which was established upon better promises.
13 In that he saith, A new covenant, he hath made the first old. Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away.
Both verses are expressed in the past and present tenses, signifying that what lies between them was true and fulfilled when written.
It became and becomes true and fulfilled for every Jew who received and receives salvation through Christ's New Covenant and Blood.
Which began 2,000 years ago at Calvary.
The conversation is focused explicitly on understanding Paul's argument in Romans chapters 9 through 11. Paul asserts that eternal life belongs to his people, his kinsmen. Jeremiah writes that the promise of eternal life will apply to "each man and his neighbor."
The NASB translation supplied the italics, indicating that the words are not in the original Greek, but were added for the sake of clarity.Why did you not italicize "not"?![]()
The meaning of those phrases is context-dependent. What's your point?It is due to your refusal to understand the difference between "all Israel" and "of Israel".
In this case it is the Day of the Lord basisI think it needs to be looked at on a case-by-case basis.
Thanks for your confirmation.The conversation is focused explicitly on understanding Paul's argument in Romans chapters 9 through 11. Paul asserts that eternal life belongs to his people, his kinsmen. Jeremiah writes that the promise of eternal life will apply to "each man and his neighbor."
What do you think motivates him to dedicate three extra chapters to examining his nation after Paul's message about the inclusive and universal nature of access to God's grace through faith alone? The first eight chapters of Romans are enough for his readers to understand that God's favor is directed to those who believe in his son, Jesus Christ, and trust in the cross for the forgiveness of sins.
The initial eight chapters focus on the theme of individual salvation, exploring the personal journey and transformation of believers. Following this, the next three chapters shift their attention to a significant promise that God made to Paul's kinsmen, addressing the broader context of his nation as a whole. This transition highlights the collective significance of faith and redemption beyond individual experiences.
If you spent a fraction of the time that you spend attempting to contort God into a racist, instead learning to understand "all Israel" and "of Israel", you'd be immeasurably farther ahead.I concur with that perspective. However, it's important to note that Paul's argument in Romans 9 acknowledges that God's promise to save the nation of Israel and his fellow kinsmen is still an unfulfilled commitment. This indicates a complexity in the understanding of divine promise and fulfillment, highlighting the ongoing significance of Israel in God's redemptive plan. Paul seems to suggest that while God’s promises are certain, their realization may extend beyond present circumstances, inviting a deeper reflection on the themes of faith, election, and salvation throughout biblical history.
He then would have used the future tense where applicable.However, I must respectfully disagree with your assertion that he is indicating the entire passage from Jeremiah was completely fulfilled during the first century. Instead, it seems that Paul's interpretation suggests that certain elements of the prophecy may have been realized, while other aspects could still hold relevance or await fulfillment in future contexts.
On the contrary, In his letter to the Romans, the Apostle Paul deliberately limits his use of the term "Israel" to specific sections, namely chapters 9 through 11. This intentional restriction suggests a significant shift in both the subject matter and focus within the epistle. By confining his discussion of Israel to these chapters, Paul not only highlights the importance of the theme but also distinguishes it from the broader theological arguments presented earlier in the letter. This change in focus allows him to explore the complexities of Israel's relationship with God, the implications of Israel’s covenant and identity, and the unfolding plan of salvation that encompasses both Jews and Gentiles. Thus, this thematic shift signals a pivotal moment in the text, drawing attention to the significance of Israel in God’s overarching redemptive narrative.Thanks for your confirmation.
Any reference to the "nation of Israel" is conspicuously absent.
Don't miss the contrast between "The remnant" and "All Israel" in Romans 11.If you spent a fraction of the time that you spend attempting to contort God into a racist, instead learning to understand "all Israel" and "of Israel", you'd be immeasurably farther ahead.
But you refuse.
There's no "nation of Israel" in Romans 9.
There are "all Israel" and "of Israel".
Only "all Israel", whom Paul describes later as the "remnant" (Romans 9:27) in agreement with Isaiah, will be saved.
Since you refuse to understand, leave it for those who do understand.
As I previously mentioned, Paul’s remarks concerning Jeremiah hold significant truth and relevance in the context of his own time. However, it’s important to note that Paul did not address the reaction of his nation towards the New Covenant within that framework. While God had indeed established the New Covenant through the sacrificial death of Jesus Christ and His steadfast obedience to divine will, it is crucial to recognize that, at that moment, God had not fully poured out His Spirit upon Israel. This meant that the promise outlined in Jeremiah—that "each man and his neighbor" would come to know the Lord—had not yet been realized. The transformative experience of knowing God intimately and personally, as envisioned in the New Covenant, was still in anticipation for the people of Israel.He then would have used the future tense where applicable.
But he didn't.
Your interpretation is not his interpretation.
Scriptureless as usual.While God had indeed established the New Covenant through the sacrificial death of Jesus Christ and His steadfast obedience to divine will, it is crucial to recognize that, at that moment, God had not fully poured out His Spirit upon Israel. This meant that the promise outlined in Jeremiah—that "each man and his neighbor" would come to know the Lord—had not yet been realized. The transformative experience of knowing God intimately and personally, as envisioned in the New Covenant, was still in anticipation for the people of Israel.
Don't miss the contrast between "The remnant" and "All Israel" in Romans 11.
Peter is not claiming that Pentecost fulfilled Joel's prophecy. A review of Joel's prophecy reveals much more detail and events that did not occur during Pentecost.Scriptureless as usual.
Try these.
Acts 2
16 But this is that which was spoken by the prophet Joel;
17 And it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh: and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams:
Hebrews 1
1 God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,
2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;
Scriptureless and false.Peter is not claiming that Pentecost fulfilled Joel's prophecy. A review of Joel's prophecy reveals much more detail and events that did not occur during Pentecost.