Sure, but I find fault in your method of interpretation. Why should I just accept that statement you made?
Revelation chapter 20 - Gog and Magog
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Satan is loosed after the millennium. The rest of the dead live again after the millennium.
You have a time gap after the millennium for the rest of the dead to live again, right? If so then you should be willing to accept a time gap after the millennium for Satan to be loosed, right?
Okay, you being a partial preterist is helpful to others in understanding why you interprete bible passages as you do . I am a futurist, premil.
So we are not going to agree on much.
If you say that that you are partial preterist every once in a while in your post - it would be helpful to others.
...after the millennium and after the short season and after Satan is cast into the lake of fire.
Then the rest of the dead will be resurrected to stand before the Great White Throne Judgement.
ewq1938
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To claim Jerusalem is burned by God in Rev 20 goes well beyond the text but what I said matches what is given in the passage. The army is burned and killed. Anything else is adding to the text. There is fault in interpretation but not in mine.
Rev 20:9 And they went up on the breadth of the earth, and compassed the camp of the saints about, and the beloved city: and fire came down from God out of heaven, and devoured them.
Right, but if you insert a gap for the rest of the dead to only live again after the short season then why not have a literal thousand years with a gap inserted after the thousand before Satan is loosed? And why not insert a gap after the two witnesses are done with their testimonies?
“Them” is referring to the beloved city, Jerusalem.
Look, you can believe what you want but I’m not going to accept the insertion of time gaps in the scriptures just so someone’s view can work.
The "them" is referring to the attackers.... just as Gog/Magog will have attacked Israel a thousand years earlier. The camp of the saints is Israel.
Israel and everything within its borders will be protected by God.
Yea, Revelation 20:5 says the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. You need to have the rest of the dead being alive during that shaded area.
Let me guess. You need it to mean that so that you can make it be about 70 AD and Jerusalem being destroyed at the time, right?
No, the camp of the saints is Jerusalem after the rest of the dead came to life and fled. Those who chose to remain in Jerusalem after it was surrounded by armies were devoured.
What other city could it be? New Jerusalem is in heaven and the beloved city in Revelation 20 is on earth.
You are reading...
5 But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.
...but when you read a little further about what Satan does when he is loosed for the little season as said in verse 3, then it becomes apparent that the total timeframe will be...
the thousand years and after the short season and after Satan is cast into the lake of fire.
Then the rest of the dead will be resurrected to stand before the Great White Throne Judgement.
The problem with that idea, even if one were Amil and takes satan's little season to be involving the end of this age, there is no resurrection event that occurs at the beginning of satan's little season. Therefore, there is no way for the rest of the dead to live again at the beginning of satan's little season since it requires a resurrection event having to take place first.
None of that is in Revelation 20.
The rest of the dead are not resurrected except to appear before the Great White Throne Judgement.
No-one is killed twice, then resurrected twice as in your view.
No, it’s clear to me that the rest of the dead spiritually came to life after the millennium, that is the same time the Son of man is revealed, the same time the fullness of the Gentiles come in, and the same time the blindness in part is lifted. It all fits and makes sense.
No resurrection is needed for the spiritually dead to live again. That is why that view makes sense. It doesn’t make sense to start inserting time gaps, at least to me.
I happen to think, though I'm a Premil, and regardless most Premils disagree, the new Jerusalem is on the earth at the beginning of the millennium. It doesn't make sense it could be meaning the old Jerusalem if the following per Ezekiel 38 happens in the end of this age involving the 2nd coming.
Ezekiel 38:18 And it shall come to pass at the same time when Gog shall come against the land of Israel, saith the Lord GOD, that my fury shall come up in my face.
19 For in my jealousy and in the fire of my wrath have I spoken, Surely in that day there shall be a great shaking in the land of Israel;
20 So that the fishes of the sea, and the fowls of the heaven, and the beasts of the field, and all creeping things that creep upon the earth, and all the men that are upon the face of the earth, shall shake at my presence, and the mountains shall be thrown down, and the steep places shall fall, and every wall shall fall to the ground
The way some try and get around this, this is meaning thousands of years ago and is meaning before Christ was born rather than after He is born. But if I'm correct to apply this to the end of this age, how could the present Jerusalem, the old Jerusalem, still be standing if this happens in the region---and every wall shall fall to the ground? The text doesn't say some walls fall to the ground, which would imply some don't. It says every wall, as in all walls, shall fall to the ground. Not to mention, the text also says all men not some men but not other men, the latter implying God flat out lied to us through His prophet Ezekiel, that are upon the face of the earth at the time, shall shake at His presence.
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