That view is not scriptural. Jesus was “sent” as the redeemer of mankind….he spoke about being “sent” to accomplish his Father’s will many times…..please tell me why God had to “send” himself to die, when he is an immortal.…a being whose life cannot be destroyed.
God “sent” his son to become a human and to give his life as a ransom for Adam’s children. The price demanded under God’s law was… “an eye for an eye, a tooth for a tooth, a life for a life”.
Adam lost his perfect sinless life when he deliberately disobeyed God’s command….to fulfill his law, God sent his son to do what he could not. If Jesus was God, then he could not die the same death as Adam and the ransom is not paid, and therefore we are not redeemed and it ends there…..you see? It’s all in the way you read it.
Jesus said that he is “the son of God”…it is all he ever claimed to be. (John 10:31-36)
Well then John 10:31-36 and John 10:13 are in conflict.
And if the NT has conflicts then we cannot trust a word it says.
Do you suppose there might be a solution to the problem?
It's up to you to discover it.
I have no more time for you.
As was shown to you in plain English, Jehovah has many “sons”, whom Jesus calls his “brothers”.
He can be “divine”, without usurping his Father’s position as “the only true God”.
Look up the word “theos“ (god) in a Greek Interlinear and see that it doesn’t just mean “God” with a capital “G”.
As the Scripture in John 10:31-36 indicates, human judges were called “gods” by Jehovah himself. They were divinely authorized by him, representing him. Jesus did too, representing him in every way.
You don’t know why I brought it up? That tells me that you didn’t bother to read what was posted….it was an integral point to the discussion. Who are called “sons of God” in the Bible?
Jesus is a “son of God”, but not the only one. He is God’s “firstborn” (Col 1:15) He is the first and only direct creation of his Father, which makes him unique. (Rev 3:14) All creation came into existence “through” the agency of this beloved firstborn son….he is the “us” and “our” in Genesis 1:26.
I am not surprised that you wanted to ignore it.
Again, you show how little you really know…..the “immaculate conception” relates to Mary in the RCC, not Jesus. Do you believe in the immaculate conception of Mary?
Jesus was ‘miraculously’ conceived by the power of God’s spirit.….as the Scriptures plainly state.
I wonder why you care to post to someone that knows so little?
And it's so wonderful that you know what the Immaculate Conception means.
A good leftover from your Catholic days.
I bid you farewell.Jesus became the one sent to redeem the human race when Mary gave birth to him….he did not become “the Christ” however, until his baptism in 29CE, when the holy spirit anointed him for the difficult mission he was to carry out. Now empowered to perform miracles, he would draw many of the “lost sheep” into the fold he would create.…..a different flock to the Jews who rejected him.
The ransom required an exact exchange…’a sinless life for a sinless life’…..that is why Jesus had to come from outside the now sinful human race….he was not carrying the imperfection of sin in his DNA. His life was transferred from heaven in order for God’s will to be done in rescuing Adam’s offspring.