No, that's not true. When we see "after this I saw," all John is saying is that he saw consecutive *visions*--not that the series of visions were in chronological order. These are very different things.
Obviously, John's visions would take place sequentially. How can they not? And they of course would be related in that fashion, as a narrative would. First I saw this, and then that. This time sequence does *not* indicate a chronological order of the things they *represent!*
I could see a series of 3 visions and relate them in the chronological sequence in which I saw them, the 1st presenting the future, the 2nd presenting the present, and the 3rd presenting the past. The visions would be given in the chronological order in which I saw them, but the progression in which the visions actually take place have their own non-chronological sequence, actually the opposite of what we normally see in time.
It makes no difference if I, the narrator, say: 1st I saw the future. Then, I saw the present. And then, I saw the past. The chronological sequence of time in which I saw the visions is different than the chronology of the visions themselves. The chronology of the visions themselves take place from future to past. This is *not* the chronology in which I saw them and relay them!
In the case of the visions in Revelation, no chronology is given from one vision to another--just a narrative progression. You are actually *adding to the Revelation* by inserting the idea that these visions present, one after another, chronological sequence. No such suggestion is made!
The only chronological order is the order in which John saw the visions. And that was *his own time sequence,* and not a supposed chronological sequence one vision after another.