I’m a Jewish monotheist. John is a Jewish monotheist. The history of the doctrine of the Trinity is easy to trace.
Yes. Jewish monotheism. It’s such an elementary historical point that it’s a concession by trinitarian scholars. I quoted J.A.T. Robinson as an example.
That’s a trinitarian perspective on a Jewish monotheist’s writing.
Isaiah is a Jewish monotheist, not a trinitarian.
There is no “Isaiah the trinitarian” in history; there is a “Isaiah the Jewish monotheist” in history.
You’re once again taking something written by a Jewish monotheist and making use and application of it through your trinitarian eyes and mind.
There is no question that the Church began as a sect of, and within, Judaism. Everyone knows, or should, that Judaism (Jewish monotheism) is unitarian. (I’ll quote some trinitarian scholars to establish the point, if that’s really necessary.)
There is also no question that in the second century the Church moved away from Jewish monotheism, and that in the third century we still haven’t arrived at trinitarianism.
There is no question that the Church came close to trinitarianism at Nicaea in 325. There is no question that as late as 380 the Church was still unsettled on who or what the Holy Spirit is (I’ve quoted Gregory of Nazianzus, from Schaff’s History of the Christian Church, to demonstrate and document the point.)
Finally, there is no question that in 381, at the Council of Constantinople, the doctrine of the Trinity was completed.
This is nothing but Church history.
The only question is the one asked by the trinitarian scholar Harold O.J. Brown.
I quote trinitarian scholars (I rarely quote non-trinitarian scholars) and Church history not to prove or disprove the doctrine of the Trinity. The history is there and as plain as the nose on our faces. Everyone has to answer Dr. Brown’s question for themselves.