Berean
Well-Known Member
Correct, but in the case of John 1:1, Jehovah is theon, which is basically the same word. So let me ask you Jane, how do you explain 2 Corinthians 4:4“Theos” in Greek is “god” (they have no capital letters) so again it’s up to the interpreter to see the “ho” before a word and add “the” as it does in John 1:1 when speaking about Yahweh….but when “theos” has no definite article, it can describe “a god”…..or “a god-like one”…or “one authorized by the Father to act as his representative”, which is why God could call human judges on earth “gods” (theos without the definite article) in John 10:31-36. They acted on his behalf.
"whose minds the god [ho theos] of this age has blinded, who do not believe, lest the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God [theos], should shine on them."
Here Satan is ho theos and Jehovah is theos