After the cross it was impossible to enter the kingdom through the Law because the new covenant went into effect. So the offenders entered the kingdom through the Law, prior to the scribes and Pharisees, and were purged in 70AD.
Look what you are arguing here, then compare to the following which is clearly already meaning before the cross not after it.
John 3:1 There was a man of the Pharisees, named Nicodemus, a ruler of the Jews:
2 The same came to Jesus by night, and said unto him, Rabbi, we know that thou art a teacher come from God: for no man can do these miracles that thou doest, except God be with him.
3 Jesus answered and said unto him, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God.
4 Nicodemus saith unto him, How can a man be born when he is old? can he enter the second time into his mother's womb, and be born?
5 Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
6 That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.
7 Marvel not that I said unto thee, Ye must be born again.
What you submitted per Matthew 23, the above was already applicable at the time.
Like it or not, accept it or not, NOSAS is 100% relevant to this topic. To try and understand this topic by ignoring/disregarding NOSAS is an attempt in vain to try and understand this topic. All that leads to is untruths and false teachings.
Once again your view doesn't allow everyone to have an equal opportunity to enter the kingdom of God willfully initially. Just because one has to be born again in order to enter the kingdom of God does not guarantee they can't die again. Meaning the 2nd death in this case. The ones Jesus said He never knew them in Matthew 7, they are obviously going to die again, meaning the 2nd death. Yet they were initially born again first. It just didn't pan out for them in the end. They ended up being workers of iniquity rather that doing the will of His Father which is in heaven.
Matthew 7:22 Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy name have cast out devils? and in thy name done many wonderful works?
Let's be real here. Atheists, unbelievers(thus not saved), and unbelieving Jews, for example, couldn't possibly be meant here. No way have atheists nor unbelieving Jews, nor unbelievers professed to have cast out devils in His name, etc. Only a believer can profess to having done that. Atheists, unbelievers(thus not saved), and unbelieving Jews, for example, couldn't care less about doing any of these things---prophesying in His name, casting out devils in His name, and in His name doing many wonderful works. Some argue that none of these were ever initially saved to begin with. But if that is true why are the unsaved professing to have done things only the saved would be doing? Where is the logic in that?