It's important to remember that the authors of the Bible wrote to a diverse audience - some who were believers, some who were non-believers, and some who were already followers of Christ. Therefore, we should be cautious about making assumptions about those who are "in Christ" based on warnings directed at non-believers.
I'd answered this previously (not sure if you hadn't gotten a chance to respond to it, or what)--in case it is necessary, I'll share it again here
Of someone whose Master can make him stand (v4)--he's a true believer, not a false believer (actually, there is no unbeliever mentioned, no unbeliever in view, in Ro 14)--it is said that whether he does or doesn't observe a particular day, or does or doesn't eat (what ever he does), that that slave of Jesus must be "fully persuaded in his mind" for it to be righteous and not sinful.
Do you agree with this?
Paul explains the reason the man in Ro 14:23 is condemned is "what ever [act that] does not proceed from faith is sin".
Do you agree with this?
Wouldn't you agree there is a connection between the two--ie, that the
rule for the slaves of the Lord Jesus is "let each man be fully convinced in his own mind", and that, therefore, the breaking of that rule would constitute
sin, because "what ever does not proceed from faith is sin"? And how could Paul, if believers never
sin, never walk after the flesh, describe what it would be for a believer to
sin?
Is it
an unbeliever, who is nowhere in view in Romans 14, who is "condemned" because he doesn't eat with his non-brothers (since he's not a child of God)? Wouldn't such an unbeliever be condemned already (for his unbelief in the Gospel)? Why would Paul, without ever having mentioned unbelievers, juggle an unbeliever in to the matter about true believers, and the rule of life true believers are to live by, and warn that if an unbeliever breaks a rule which the Lord's slaves are to keep,
then he is condemned? Do you see how that is incoherent? And show me where an "unbeliever" is explicitly mentioned in Romans 14. Paul only speaks explicitly of the Lord's slaves.
The person who judges another for being a vegetarian is wrong, and God will condemn them. Similarly, the vegetarian who holds the meat eater in contempt is also wrong, and God will condemn them as well. I believe that neither of these individuals is "In Christ" as Paul defines the term.
Well, at least you acknowledge the guy is condemned by God (some deny it). That's a start.
Think of it: you would have us believe there're no "real believers" Paul is instructing, here--ie, he's writing to a "secret remnant" of
unbelievers who happen to be in the Church--to hold your view together.
My view, however, allows us to accept that he begins by speaking with those "in Christ", giving them rules, and continues speaking with them, all the way through, explaining to the same people "in Christ" the consequences of breaking those rules he lays down for those "in Christ" ("each man must be fully convinced in his own mind... but the one who has doubts is condemned if he eats [or observes a day, or any other thing he does], because what ever does not proceed from faith is sin").
(Note: this is actually why the Galatians were "severed from Christ", were "deserting Him Who calls you in the Grace of Christ"--did not remain "in Christ"--they had believed another Gospel, which was not from God (Gal 1:6, 5:8), breaking the command to believe in the Name of God's Son (1 Jn 3:23), whereby they would have remained "in Christ", and were not serving others by faith which works by love, but were doing deeds without faith, just because the Law,
external to them, told them to do it. They were not doing the deeds which God's love was convicting them to do
from the heart for God's glory.)
In my view, there is no break, no change of subject, no change of audience.
Is he instructing
unbelievers that whatever they do they must do with full persuasion?
No? He's instructing believers?
Then he's not describing the
consequences of breaking that rule to
unbelievers, but to the same group of "true believers" he had just been talking to.
Is the one who is to be accepted despite being weak (v1) a "true believer"? It says his "Master" is able to make him stand, so his "Master" is Jesus right? He's a believer? Yet, this "weak" brother is the very one who is to be protected from doing things against his conscience. Why? Because if you are culpable for making him stumble that way, you "destroy the work of God". (Clearly, then, he's a "true believer".) All because he is caused to do what he does not believe, leading to his condemnation. Isn't that Paul's entire teaching here? Isn't that the conclusion--"what ever does not proceed from faith is sin"? Isn't that because it is not in keeping with "each man must be fully convinced in his own mind", and the "weak" brother has been caused to violate that standard?
When Paul writes...
Romans 14
5One person regards a certain day above the others, while someone else considers every day alike. Each one should be fully convinced in his own mind.
6He who observes a special day does so to the Lord;
b he who eats does so to the Lord, for he gives thanks to God; and he who abstains does so to the Lord and gives thanks to God.
7For none of us lives to himself alone, and none of us dies to himself alone.
8If we live, we live to the Lord, and if we die, we die to the Lord. So whether we live or die, we belong to the Lord.
9For this reason Christ died and returned to life, that He might be the Lord of both the dead and the living.
10Why, then, do you judge your brother? Or why do you belittle your brother? For we will all stand before God’s judgment seat.
11It is written:
“As surely as I live,
says the Lord,
every knee will bow before Me;
every tongue will confess to God.”
c
12So then, each of us will give an account of himself to God.
...is the issue "some of us are are true believers, and some of us are not true believers", or isn't it that "true believers have a rule--they must be fully convinced in their own minds... and if they do what they are not fully convinced is correct, they are sinning"? Clearly, the issue is how believers are to live their lives.
Regarding the guy who is judging his brother, though, what had the Scripture already said of the one who judges his brother?
"None of us lives to himself alone, and none of us dies to himself alone. If we live, we live to the Lord, and if we die, we die to the Lord. ... Why then do you judge your brother?" Nowhere is it even hinted at that the problem with the guy who is judging his brother does not believe in the Gospel; contrariwise, he is living to and dying to the Lord, and is said to be among all of the saints who will give an account of their lives to the Lord. He is not singled out as different. He is a true believer.
So, Scripture recognizes the man who judges his brother is a saint--therefore, even if it were the case that Ro 14:23 referred to someone being condemned for judging his brother (it doesn't, it refers to someone who sinned by breaking the rule that he ought to do only what he believes--this is
explicit), we already have the precedent that he is a saint.
None of what you are asserting, therefore, is coherent.
The only coherent solution to the fact that those "in Christ" enjoy "no condemnation", yet the one who does not walk by faith "is condemned", is that not all "remain" "in Christ"--clearly, because "remaining" is by "obeying His commands", and Ro 14:23 is a case where someone
did not obey Christ's rule.
It's all fairly straightforward.