CadyandZoe
Well-Known Member
Yes, I agree that Paul quotes Jeremiah 31 and Paul teaches us that the New Covenant is in effect now. But there is more to Jeremiah 31 than the New Covenant. Apparently you didn't know that.No, I don't follow you at all. Do you understand that Jeremiah 31:31-34 is quoted in Hebrews 8:8-13 and it relates to the new covenant that was established by the blood of Christ long ago? If you don't understand that, what can you understand? I think maybe nothing.
Let's investigate this idea before we talk about the text of Romans 9. For our investigation, let's go back and review Galatians 3:15-18. In that context Paul argues that salvation is based on a promise Yahweh made to Abraham, which is a promise that he made to Abraham 430 years prior to the Mt. Sinai covenant. What this means is that everyone whom God is saving owes their salvation to a promise God made to Abraham. Where does Paul get this idea? Paul is exegeting Genesis 12:3 where God tells Abraham "in you all the families of the earth will be blessed." Not only is God going to bless Abraham's direct descendants, he is going to bless any one who is "in Abraham." And how does one enter into Abraham? Paul explains, in Romans 4, that God is justifying all those who share the same faith as Abraham. (Meditate on Romans 4)No, he indicates that it isn't a criteria at all! What are you reading? Look at the following verses closely, which relate directly to Romans 9:6.
Romans 9:7 Nor because they are his descendants are they all Abraham’s children. On the contrary, “It is through Isaac that your offspring will be reckoned.” 8 In other words, it is not the children by physical descent who are God’s children, but it is the children of the promise who are regarded as Abraham’s offspring.
Paul couldn't possibly have made it more clear that one's ethnicity or nationality has absolutely nothing to do with being a child of God (child of the promise, Abraham's offspring/seed). This couldn't be more clear, but you still miss it. Unbelievable.
So then salvation is predicated on a promise God made to Abraham 430 years before the Mt. Sinai covenant, and according to Paul, Jesus Christ was the focal point of that promise. Jesus Christ is the means whereby God is going to save all those who share the faith of Abraham. Galatians 3:16. (I realize that I am telling you things you already know. But I am building up to something here.)
In his epistle to the Galatians, we come to understand that God considers other people, those outside of Abraham's direct lineage, to be Abraham's descendants by virtue of the fact that they share the faith of Abraham. Even in the epistle to the Romans Paul makes that same point in Romans 4, where he argues that God accredited "righteousness" to Abraham BEFORE he was circumcised. In conclusion he says that Abraham is the father of our faith; he is "the father of all who believe without being circumcised, that righteousness might be credited to them, and the father of circumcision to those who not only are of the circumcision, but who also follow in the steps of the faith of our father Abraham which he had while uncircumcised."
I highlighted that last part because, in my view, Romans chapters 9 through 11 is narrowly focused on the circumcised. In Romans 4 Paul is talking about two groups whom God considers to be Abraham's descendants: 1) those who believe without being circumcised, and 2) those who believe while being circumcised. After the cross, both the uncircumcised individuals and those of the circumcision, sharing in the faith of Abraham are united in Christ.
Now, God not only made a promise to Abraham, he made a promise to the nation of the circumcised. Down through history that nation consisted of individuals who followed in the steps of the faith of Father Abraham, while others did not. It was a mix and it always has been a mix. So the question arises, Did God promise to save an entire nation by virtue of the fact that they belong to a circumcised people? The answer is emphatically no. God did promise to save them as a nation, which seems to contradict Paul's argument that salvation is predicated on following in the steps of the faith of father Abraham. In the context of THAT circumstance, Paul sets out to explain what God actually promised to the circumcised nation. In this context, lineage is in the forefront of the objection that Paul is answering.
So then, when Paul says "nor are they all children because they are Abraham’s descendants" he is speaking into the question of the circumcised nation. Consider the birth story of Isaac. There we read about how God, through a miracle, gave Sarah a son from Abraham's body. Why the miracle if physical descent wasn't significant? Of course physical descent was important and significant to God's promise, which is why Paul cited this as an example. Both Isaac and Ishmael were physically related to Abraham. The situation that made the difference was God's choice. Paul wants his readers to know that even in the case where physical descent was at issue, even in that case, the child of promise was Isaac and not Ishmael because being a child of promise is God's choice. Neither of the boys made that choice. God made that choice.
Paul isn't saying that biological lineage isn't important or significant; his claim is that even in cases where biological lineage IS important, the child that stands to inherit the blessing is the one whom God chose.
So then, did God make a promise to the nation of the circumcised? Yes. But even here, where circumcision is important and significant, those who stand to inherit the promise are those whom God will personally choose.
No. If that is what you heard me say then I misspoke. What I am saying is that Paul's treatise in Romans 9-11 is narrowly focused on the circumscribed nation and the promise God made to that nation. He already argued that God is justifying those who follow in the steps of faith of father Abraham, which includes both Jews and Gentiles. I wanted to remind you that this promise comes 430 years earlier than the Mt. Sinai covenant. God's promise to a nation of circumcised people comes much later and Paul has set out to explain why, though it appears that it failed, it has not failed.Remember, you're talking about Romans 9-11, overall, right? Read Romans 11:30-32. In verse 32 Paul wrote "For God has bound everyone over to disobedience so that he may have mercy on them all.". God desires to have mercy on all people. You act as if He only desires to have mercy on all of ethnic Israel (or He will one day) and not the rest of the world.
I agree, the two passages are saying the same thing about Abraham's seed. But, the question that the passage sets out to explain is different, which is why I say they are apples and oranges. Romans 9:6 is an entirely different subject than Galatians 3:5. The Galatians passage is the basis of the promise God made to Abraham 430 years prior to the Mt. Sinia Covenant. The Romans passage is dealing with an entirely different promise.Nonsense! Comparing one passage that speaks of the children of God, children of the promise and Abraham's seed to another that speaks of the children of God, children of the promise and Abraham's seed is comparing apples to oranges? How can we compare any two passages directly together then? It would be impossible.
Yes, I agree with all of that. But in Romans 9-11 Paul is no longer talking about Jews and Gentiles as individuals. He is talking nations rather than individuals. Do me a favor; go back through Romans chapters 9 - 11 and review every statement Paul made about the nation of Israel. I think you will find statements like the following, "but Israel, pursuing a law of righteousness, did not arrive at that law. Why? Because they did not pursue it by faith, but as though it were by works. They stumbled over the stumbling stone . . ." Later, Paul will claim that he personally arrived and so we understand that whenever Paul uses the term "Israel" he is speaking about his people as a whole. What the nation itself didn't receive from God, individual Jews received. In other words, when Paul is making a point about individual people, he uses terms like "Jew" and "Greek" and "Gentile", but when he wants to make a point about his entire nation, he uses the term "Israel". Isaiah cries out about Israel saying that only a remnant will be saved; Paul says that Israel pursued a law of righteous but did not arrive at that law. There are others.Don't read Romans 9 in isolation. Paul is making a point from Romans 9 to Romans 11. So, Romans 10 and 11 relate to what he was talking about in Romans 9. And in Romans 10 and 11 he clearly wrote about there being no difference between Jew and Gentile as well.
Paul is attempting to inform us about God's promise to Israel, not a promise he made to Abraham.
This post is getting long and I'm afraid it won't post so forgive me for not addressing the rest of your objections here.