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Opinions depicting someone is full of hot air is a sign of frustration and an inability to prove a point in the face of opposition.
was your name attached to it? did I say dave is full of hot air? one know when a hen lays an egg she clucks.
and as for as frustration, some one said I was like the devil, Satan. Well that’s not the first time I been CALLED THE DEVIL… (SMILE).
did I get upset, or get frustrated? no, I took it in stride. I turned what was supposed to be bad into good. I took it as a compliment, yes a compliment, because at least I was not one of the devils rudy poot demons running around, I got the TOP slot in the cooperation of evil…. lol. Now come on……. lol
see dave as a child of God, no one can make you, or get frustrated. you turn a bad into to good.
I want you to understand something, there is NOTHING that anyone can say (Insult) or do, (post) to me to make me frustrated. as a child of the King you overcome. never take anything for bad, if you do then you lower yourself to their level.
take note, the apostle Paul said, "what I did, (before he came to christ), he did in ignorance". that's all it is. so be like christ, "Father, forgive them for they know not what they do".
take the HIGH ROAD.
Who were you speaking to at the time? How would they interpret it? Are you insulting all who read and disagree with you?
if you or they take it that way, then it's on you and them. now if I have something directly to say to an indivual I will directly use their name. my post is for all to see and read.
PICJAG.
I would just like go over how you might have gotten to where you are, by erroneous logic in mistranslation and interpretation. I think I will just analyze the last two verses you asked me to reconcile - John 1:3 and Isaiah 44:24. Unfortunately, they do reconcile, although not in the way you think and believe.
Let’s look at John 1:3 or really first verses 1 and 2. I believe your foundational error like with many others stems from the unscriptural interpretation of the Greek transliterated term ‘logos.’
As one of my used posts state: Although οὗτος is declined in the masculine gender, some might assume that "the word" (ὁ λόγος) is a person, but οὗτος is simply agreeing with the grammatical gender of its antecedent, ὁ λόγος, a grammatically masculine gender noun. As such, unless it is absolutely certain that ὁ λόγος is referring to an animate object with gender (e.g., a male person), then the pronouns that refer to it would be translated by the neuter gender English pronoun "it."
Now up until the late 1500s the few English Bible translations available, made ὁ λόγος (logos) an ‘it’ because these wise translators were not sure that logos was a person just because the Romanists using the Latin Vulgate made it so. Remember, they were the ones promoting the trinity pagan concept, even today. Unfortunately, even though there were some honest translators and they were cautious and CORRECT to make logos an ‘it,’ it was not too long when the KJV made it an ‘he’ like the Catholics before it.
Just like in other languages like French, German and Spanish, they are all gender-based languages, like Greek. A table in French is male or female depending on the type of table, ‘la’ or le’ and one do not call a table a ‘she’ or a ‘he.’ It is an inanimate object and noun. Logos means: utterance, expression, words, voice etc. There is no precedence in calling logos a person, let alone Jesus the Christ. This meaning was deliberately made to make Jesus = God, or in your case Jesus = the Holy Spirit. And then when we read John 1:3 having bought into the idea that logos = Jesus we then conclude he was also the creator of all. Unfortunately, today, ‘the horse is out of the barn’ as they say, and it’s nearly impossible to change it back to a more appropriate translation of ‘Logos’ to voice, or expression that considers the context. Very sad indeed.
Now in Isaiah 44:24, you then compound this original error that logos = he = Jesus from John 1 and insert it here and then add some new novel errors or novel ideas because you read in Isaiah that it speaks of the redeemer and Yahweh. And of course, you say, voila, that must be Jesus, the redeemer. And not only that, you read the word Yahweh and say well then Jesus = Lord = God = redeemer. So, you also conclude that Jesus created the heavens that must jive or be reconciled with John 1:3. Quite astonishing and confusing. You see Yahweh redeemed Israel and its people. Yahweh is never his Son Jesus who was created and existed much later.
You have made some striking errors in each verse; one built from the former, like a building on sand. They cannot be truly reconciled because you have grossly forced misunderstood ideas and haphazardly deduced wild conclusions.
I hope you see why I believe your hypothesis is a fantasy.
Just one more comment from your previous post.
The Father is NOT a title for the Holy Spirit. Show me the scripture that says differently.
The Father is God Almighty and the title of God Almighty as the creator of all and the Father of his Son, Jesus, who became the Christ and our Savior, and for those that are true believers.
The Father, who is God Almighty is the sole owner of the Holy Spirit – it is his own. It is his power to create, and cause things into existence and give life, as his logos, voice, expression, reason of his mind desires it, for his pleasure, not Jesus’ or anyone else.
Jesus has no power or control over the Father, God Almighty that uses his own logos in concert with his own Holy Spirit. Capisce!!
Bless you,
APAK
You cannot ask a loaded question based on your misunderstanding and expect me to answer it. I need to ask it for you, and then answer. It might something like this. Who is speaking as God in the OT? And I would say all three persons of the Godhead speak. But since John calls the Son the word of God, it is more than likely the Son speaking.
Waiting on him
Well-Known Member
FellowshipI think the author is no linguist.
"Yet another instance of the significance of the aleph-tav () symbol is found in the Book of Ruth. Ruth's name is used 12 times in the book. The first 10 times there is no aleph-tav (
) symbol in front of her name. After she is redeemed by Boaz the next two times her name is used, an aleph-tav () symbol appears in front of her name each time (Ruth 4:5&13). These are just two examples, but it seems quite obvious that the aleph-tav () symbol shows a connection of covenant relationship with YHVH (refer to the last series, One Flesh - Communion)."
Reading the book of Ruth, the true reason is much more prosaic. In the first three chapters, where Ruth is one of the main characters in the action, it so happens that she is never the grammatical object of a sentence - therefore no aleph-tav. In chapter 4, where she is off-scene and Boaz and the narrator are talking about her, she is the object of the sentence on two occasions, in verses 5 & 13 - and therefore has an aleph-tav in front of her name. (And verse 5 is before Boaz has redeemed her, so the 'covenant-relationship' explanation doesn't hold water anyway)
It's grammar, grammar, grammar all the way...
this is where I disagree with your assessment of the Word. and here's why.
Hebrews 1:3 "Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high.
so what did Jesus the "Express Image of his Person do?" he Spoke, (VOICE) his, God the Spirit WORDS. and the words of God was made "concrete" flesh. hence the title "WORD". supportive scripture, Mark 1:1 "The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God".
see apak that "begining" here is the same begining in John 1:1 so the (VOICE) of God was his WORD by his Son JESUS who was made concrete, (THE WORD), another supportive scripture, Hebrews 1:1 "God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,
Hebrews 1:2 "Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;so your assessment is wtong".
now apak, how did he speak (time past) to the prophets... listen, 1 Peter 1:10 "Of which salvation the prophets have enquired and searched diligently, who prophesied of the grace that should come unto you:
1 Peter 1:11 "Searching what, or what manner of time the Spirit of Christ which was in them did signify, when it testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ, and the glory that should follow".
that's how he spoke to the prophest of OLD, which proves JESUS is that Spirit. the Spirit of Christ is the Spirit of God. there is no two separate Spirit, only ONE. so you're corrected by the scriptures themselves.
see apak, you ERROR, the Lord spoke to the prophets of old directly, listen, Jeremiah 1:1 "The words of Jeremiah the son of Hilkiah, of the priests that were in Anathoth in the land of Benjamin:
Jeremiah 1:2 "To whom the word of the LORD came in the days of Josiah the son of Amon king of Judah, in the thirteenth year of his reign.
ANOTHER EXAMPLE, Micah 1:1 "The word of the LORD that came to Micah the Morasthite in the days of Jotham, Ahaz, and Hezekiah, kings of Judah, which he saw concerning Samaria and Jerusalem.
we can go on and on, prophet after prophet ... the "WORD" of the LORD came unto them in SPIRIT, just as 1 Peter 1:10 & 11 states, when God, JESUS, came in SHARED flesh, this VOICE was recorded in Concrete form in which we call the written word of God the BIBLE, the LOGOS the WRITTEN WORD OF GOD. Rama was Spoken in past times as Hebrew 1:1 and 2 ststes, but it is now WRITTEN as JOohn 1:1 states.. so you can try again....
...lol.I suggest you read Hebrews 1:1 & 2 again, 1 Peter 1:10 & 11 agaim and John 1:1 again, as well as Mark 1:1 again
now what you called me as to what I has posted, you said, it was fairy tail. to you, I use bible to respond to that, Colossians 2:8 "Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ.
that's what your post was all about, philosophy of men, their take on the WRITTEN WORD, and have no clue to it. vain deceit to to decieve.
lastely, to try in put down the trinity, is a cheap shot. at least they are close to learning the truth.
now try again, once more.....
.PICJAG.
People, people, people Listen.
the written word, Logos is recorded in written form for all peoples to READ. in time past, Rama the Spoken word of God was not recorded. but now we have the written word of God for all to see and read. which is the GOSPEL, Rama (VOICE) written for all to READ. hence the reason why the KJV was commission for all the people not just the cheif priest or special holy men to hear. but for all who will believe. this is why we have a bible today, the written WORD of God the BIBLE.
my God how men try to decieve.
PICJAG.
the written word, Logos is recorded in written form for all peoples to READ. in time past, Rama the Spoken word of God was not recorded. but now we have the written word of God for all to see and read. which is the GOSPEL, Rama (VOICE) written for all to READ. hence the reason why the KJV was commission for all the people not just the cheif priest or special holy men to hear. but for all who will believe. this is why we have a bible today, the written WORD of God the BIBLE.
my God how men try to decieve.
PICJAG.
As the Jews said Jesus is a walking Torah. True, in him, is all of God manifested. the ARK of the COVENANT, the JUDGMENT SEAT, the REDEEMER, the COMFORTER must we go on? JESUS is the HOLY SPIRIT whom many call God, Revealed.
PICJAG
PICJAG
Waiting on him
Well-Known Member
I’m no scholar. I do good to even read and write,(unintelligent). The lord has said to me in spite of this I’m accepted of him(fellowship with me). And consider all men as having my image. Love them as you love yourself. There’s no law above this.
Waiting on him
Well-Known Member
So am I, I used to go around repeating everything everything I heard of men for years. Speaking all the times and the seasons and rhymes and reasons never once consulting God. Something happened a few years ago(he made my pride evident) and I became a fool! And we’re still working on it right now. I’m trying to only speak what I hear him speak, and do what I see him do. I’m confused also?
Hello @101G,
I have had occassion today to refer to Ephesians 1:!-2, and read:-
'Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God,
to the saints which are at Ephesus,
and to the faithful in Christ Jesus:
Grace be to you, and peace,
from God our Father,
and from the Lord Jesus Christ.'
Here, Paul is making a distinction between God as 'Father', and His Son, 'The Lord Jesus Christ'. It troubles me a little that you appear to want to take away all distinctions, when Scripture makes those distinctions.
We are told in God's Word, that God is spirit (not, 'a spirit'). We are not 'spirit', we are 'flesh', and live in time and space, therefore in His love, His mercy and His grace, He has made Himself known to us in ways that we can comprehend, using words that enable us to understand His person and His works - in His Word. Who are we to argue about His means of communication? Who are we to alter and try to reshape what He Himself has instituted.
Please know that I am not standing in opposition to your thoughts expressed: for you, like me, are feeble flesh and our understanding is limited. I acknowledge without question that God is One God, and that the fulness of the Godhead dwelleth in my Lord, but I will not take away the necessary distinctions that God has created for making our comprehension of Him possible.
Thank you.
In Christ Jesus
Chris
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Oh okay, Sir!
My problem is that if I don't read a long thread, I don't always follow the significance of what is being said. I really should go back to the beginning and read it all, but sometimes it's very long. (I know some of my threads that I have started are rather long already...)
You have said that you and your family have a great flair for art: I wish my own appreciation for and sensitivity to art were greater...
none of us are scholar when it come to the WORD of God. but... but..like the rulers, and elders, and scribes, and the high prest in the early days of the church... they .... Acts 4:13 "Now when they saw the boldness of Peter and John, and perceived that they were unlearned and ignorant men, they marvelled; and they took knowledge of them, that they had been with Jesus.
Acts 4:14 "And beholding the man which was healed standing with them, they could say nothing against it.
understand, man wisdom is meanless. scripture,
1 Corinthians 1:18 "For the preaching of the cross is to them that perish foolishness; but unto us which are saved it is the power of God.
1 Corinthians 1:19 "For it is written, I will destroy the wisdom of the wise, and will bring to nothing the understanding of the prudent.
1 Corinthians 1:20 "Where is the wise? where is the scribe? where is the disputer of this world? hath not God made foolish the wisdom of this world?
1 Corinthians 1:21 "For after that in the wisdom of God the world by wisdom knew not God, it pleased God by the foolishness of preaching to save them that believe.
1 Corinthians 1:22 "For the Jews require a sign, and the Greeks seek after wisdom:
1 Corinthians 1:23 "But we preach Christ crucified, unto the Jews a stumblingblock, and unto the Greeks foolishness;
1 Corinthians 1:24 "But unto them which are called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God, and the wisdom of God.
1 Corinthians 1:25 "Because the foolishness of God is wiser than men; and the weakness of God is stronger than men.
amen.
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