J
Johann
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It would seem F2F "like" your reply to me, so let me ask you @RedFan, was Christ Jesus ever created?
J.
...and this debate is whether Jesus is God or not.
J.
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It would seem F2F "like" your reply to me, so let me ask you @RedFan, was Christ Jesus ever created?
J.
Agree.A contrary position has been argued by C. K. Barrett, J. B. Bauer, F. Büchsel, R. H. Lightfoot, B. Lindars, and R. Schnackenburg. While admitting the linguistic strength of the preceding view, these scholars have argued that in the Johannine passages monogené̄s denotes Jesus’ origin in addition to His uniqueness. Jesus is not only the “only” Son of the Father: He is the “begotten” Son because He derives His being from the Father. Barrett, e.g., insisted that the Son proceeds from the Father in personal though never independent existence (p. 166). J. B. Bauer held that in John huiós designates Jesus’ origin and contains the idea of His eternal begetting by God (p. 868).
C. B. Hoch Jr., "Only Begotten" The International Standard Bible Encyclopedia, Revised (Wm. B. Eerdmans, 1979–1988) 606.
Bold text is true.
It wasn’t the flesh. The power of God, walked Jesus up the hill.View attachment 22615
It wasn't just the crucifixion but every day wrestling with his own will and very few actually know how he overcame his temptations. So few Christians understand - They shout "he was a God-Man" he was "divine" he was part of a three headed god. It's man made doctrine which has deceived 100's of millions. The true Christ will appear and when he does all will be revealed.
So then, anyone like to tell us how he overcame if he was a man who had a Father in Heaven and a mum on earth? What was his secret?
You have it backwards, God put new raiment upon him.Christ clothed His divinity with humanity. He lived fully as a human, not once using His divine attributes to accomplish anything or to carry out His work. He lived by faith. There were a couple of occasions when His divinity shone through, like when the mob fell backwards in the garden. The plan devised between Father and Son to redeem man required precisely what you alluded to earlier...a man who could become a High Priest.
Altered Bible Joe, the proper word it through not by. Take the Bible as a whole. Jesus was created, the first and only creation by Jehovah exclusively since nothing else existed Rev 3:14, even your verse 15 showed he was the firstborn of every creature, but you seem to overlook that. Jesus became the master worker in the creation Pro 8:30, assisting Jehovah with everything that was created Gen 1:26. The in the beginning of Jn 1:1 was speaking about creation Joe
Not arguing with the preexistence of Jesus. He is/was Creator of all things... And not created Himself.
And let all the angels of God worship him.” Hebrew 1:6 Christ had to be begotten before He came into the world, else it could not be said that God brought “the firstbegotten into the world."John
The passage continues “And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him.” Hebrew 1:6 Christ had to be begotten before He came into the world, else it could not be said that God brought “the firstbegotten into the world."John the gospel writer said exactly the same. .
Point taken! I'm not going to cherry pick something out of Hebrews 11 and declare that its author meant what John's gospel (or any other writer) meant by the word monogenes, simply through the lens of how many sons Abraham actually had when he went to sacrifice Isaac. (Shame on me, I thought Isaac was Abe's only son at that point in time. I guess Johann thinks the author of Hebrews disagrees -- otherwise his point would fall flat.)
If we reject the effort to divorce monogenes from the process of generation, and translate it as only-begotten giving "begotten" its usual meaning, the issue becomes: does being "generated" necessarily entail being "created." This is the Arian controversy in a nutshell (and all of those fourth century folks spoke Greek, so their understanding of monogenes surely differed from Johann's).
Ron, let me remind you that the point of the last post was to focus on other scriptural sources to clarify that the Father is the only source of all 'righteous glory.' And I just pointed to only two scripture verses that show this, beside the one you originally used to 'prove' to yourself that God = Jesus etc. Which I said was incorrect, as you added into this verse your own personal spin and meaning without really understanding the words in it.Are you blind? It says He is coming in His glory and the gliry of the Father ..."
It's clear you are not born again, baptized in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit. If the Holy Spirit does not live in you, your Bible Study 101 class is retarded, blurry and superficial or at best on th level of a Pharisee. You are like half of the virgins who didn't have oil for their lamps. Do you know what the oil is symbolic for? Better get some for your lamp, the light is out. He is coming soon in His glory, the glory He had with the Father before the foundation of the earth.
This path you are on, with its perpetual onslaught of degrading and dishonoring Christ is evil at its core.
What if . . . types and anti-types and metaphors and such have already all been identified and explained in the Bible? What if no one has any business calling something an allegory that the Bible does not?True, caution is needed when using types, anti-types, allegorical meanings etc. It might be possible to take them too far. Of course Galatians 4&5 is a great example and one I think few would have interpreted from Gen 16 if it wasn't for the Apostle Paul inspired work.
Re your comments on John 17:5 we have a slight issue to deal with first before jumping to the common trinitarian conclusion.
If the Scripture speaks as though others per-existed, as well as Christ, what are we to make of that?
Of believers, Paul "Whom he did foreknow." (Romans 8:29) - are you to assert from this a literal reading also and say that God foreknew you therefore you per-existed?
He does this to make the riches of his glory shine even brighter on those to whom he shows mercy, who were prepared in advance for glory. Romans 9:23 & 2 Timothy 1:9
What's interesting here, is if we took a literal approach to these verses we would have the entire elect per-existing - imagine that?
I was about to respond to the next part, when I glanced down and saw this.Now I know how you will justify these verse's and provide all manner of explanation all the while holding fast to your trinitarian notions of Christ, but the truth is, you and others here cherry pick verses to support you beliefs and in doing so fail to obtain a wider understanding of God's plan in Christ Jesus our Lord.
This is true according to the letter of Scripture only, and not not with the Spirit who inspired and wrote all Scripture.The last 2 could actually be applied Joe. Jesus is Jehovah's right hand man so to speak, likely that is where the term came from as sitting at God's right hand is a statement of position. Jesus is in the number 2 position in heaven, subject only to Jehovah Himself. 1 Cor 11:3
Then why are you bothering to post?I am confident if I posted any and every verse which speaks to the closeness of Father to Son, and Son to Father, you would instantly assert Trinitarian doctrine, even though the text might hold deeper more profound meaning.
But regarding the fact that he (God) has raised Jesus from the dead, never again to be in a state of decay,
To APAK and to all non-Trinitarians, I am sorry that there remains no resolution in this topic, Trinitarian vs. Non-Trinitarian. You interpret scripture differently. This is crucial, your concept of Jesus and of course the Holy Spirit as well!Ron, let me remind you that the point of the last post was to focus on other scriptural sources to clarify that the Father is the only source of all 'righteous glory.' And I just pointed to only two scripture verses that show this, beside the one you originally used to 'prove' to yourself that God = Jesus etc. Which I said was incorrect, as you added into this verse your own personal spin and meaning without really understanding the words in it.
Now I see you have found yet another scripture that says something a little different, that Christ also has his own glory to I guess bring up to me that has now reinforced your same error, into thinking that Christ = God. This new verse does not change anything Ron, with the addition that Christ also has glory. His glory is still from his Father as the glory given to angels and every true believer today. It is true righteous glory!
When we do Bible study it is very common to find other scripture to support you conclusions to really clarify it as best as possible so we don't jump to hasty conclusions and cause serious err or damage to our beliefs. And that is what I believe you are doing once again with the same false conclusion.
Read the link below that is from a member of this CB forum/site that quite elegantly says what I was ready to write in this post for your benefit.
An then keep or tuck away all these pertinent scripture passages in your back pocket, those that we have discussed including those in this link, as those scriptures say, Christ has the glory of righteousness because of his Father's glory, period.
Now it will be easy in the future just to pull them out as a set of cards to show anyone this is the scripture that supports this claim.
The link by keithr...A Curious Question For Non-Trinitarians
Blessings to you with your journey to the truth as the Spirit can be your guide
Someone can tempt you with evil, but if you have no desire you are not tempted. Do you see the clarity of both senses of "tempt"?By you saying Jesus didn't have the propensities to sin must by your understanding mean he cannot be tempted for its impossible to be tempted to do evil if the desire is not present.
You've said, here, "Never again" to be in a state of decay. What did you mean? When was Jesus in a "state of decay"? What Scriptures do you learn that from?
Much love!
Ron, let me remind you that the point of the last post was to focus on other scriptural sources to clarify that the Father is the only source of all 'righteous glory.' And I just pointed to only two scripture verses that show this, beside the one you originally used to 'prove' to yourself that God = Jesus etc. Which I said was incorrect, as you added into this verse your own personal spin and meaning without really understanding the words in it.
Now I see you have found yet another scripture that says something a little different, that Christ also has his own glory to I guess bring up to me that has now reinforced your same error, into thinking that Christ = God. This new verse does not change anything Ron, with the addition that Christ also has glory. His glory is still from his Father as the glory given to angels and every true believer today. It is true righteous glory!
When we do Bible study it is very common to find other scripture to support you conclusions to really clarify it as best as possible so we don't jump to hasty conclusions and cause serious err or damage to our beliefs. And that is what I believe you are doing once again with the same false conclusion.
Read the link below that is from a member of this CB forum/site that quite elegantly says what I was ready to write in this post for your benefit.
An then keep or tuck away all these pertinent scripture passages in your back pocket, those that we have discussed including those in this link, as those scriptures say, Christ has the glory of righteousness because of his Father's glory, period.
Now it will be easy in the future just to pull them out as a set of cards to show anyone this is the scripture that supports this claim.
The link by keithr...A Curious Question For Non-Trinitarians
Blessings to you with your journey to the truth as the Spirit can be your guide