The final occurrence of theos in John's prologue also refers to Christ: "No one has ever seen God [theon]. It is God [theos] the only Son, who is close to the Father's heart, who has made him known." In this verse, the first occurrence of "God" (theon) refers to the Father.
The second occurrence of "God" (theos) refers to the Son. We should point out that the Greek manuscripts do not all read the same way here. In fact, the majority of Greek manuscripts say "unique Son" (monogenes huios), which is why the King James Version reads "the only begotten Son." There is significant early manuscript support, however, for the reading "unique [Son], God" (monogenes theos). Two very old papyri, p66 and P75, have been discovered in which Jesus is called theos in John 1:18, and which shift the weight of evidence decidedly over to that reading as most likely to be original."
It is interesting to note that both theon and theos in verse 18 occur without the article." In verse 1, ton theon (with the article) refers to the Father and theos refers to the Son (called the Word). If it were true that John used the article with theon but not with theos in verse 1 in order to indicate that the Son was a lesser type of deity than the Father, it is very strange that he did not maintain this same distinction in verse 18. The affirmation that the "only Son" is himself "God" is a fitting conclusion to the prologue to the Gospel of John. It makes it clear that the one who was God before creation (1:1) was still God when he came to make God the Father known to us through the Incarnation. It has been observed, "Inasmuch as the only Son is God by nature and intimately acquainted with the Father by experience, he is uniquely qualified to reveal the nature and character of God."
Jesus as "My God" is the Climax of John's Gospel (John 20:28). Although the Gospel of John has 21 chapters, the climax of the Gospel comes at the end of chapter 20, when the apostle Thomas confesses Jesus as his Lord and God (v. 28) and John states that the purpose of his Gospel is that people might have life through believing in Jesus as the Son of God (vv. 30-31). We see here the same pattern of thought as in the prologue: Jesus is the Son of God the Father (1:14,18) and yet he is also himself God (1:1,18).
There is essentially no controversy among biblical scholars that in John 20:28 Thomas is referring to and addressing Jesus when he says, "My Lord and my God!" I have read a guy who in his lengthy study on Jesus as God in the New Testament said something like, "This view prevails among grammarians, lexicographers, commentators, and English versions." Indeed, it is difficult to find any contemporary exegetical commentary or academic study that argues that Thomas's words in John 20:28 apply in context to the Father rather than to Jesus. The reason is simple: John prefaces what Thomas said with the words, "Thomas answered and said to Him" (v. 28a). This seemingly redundant wording reflects a Hebrew idiomatic way of introducing someone's response to the previous speaker. John uses it especially frequently, always with the speaker's words directed to the person or persons who have just spoken previously in the narrative. It is therefore certain that Thomas was directing his words to Jesus, not to the Father. No one, of course, would ever have questioned this obvious conclusion if Thomas had said simply "My Lord!" It is the addition of the words "and my God" that have sparked some creative but untenable interpretations of the text.
Thomas's words echo statements addressed in the Psalms to the Lord (Jehovah), especially the following: "Wake up! Bestir yourself for my defense, for my cause, my God and my Lord [ho theos mou kai ho kurios mou]!" (Ps. 35:23). These words parallel those in John 20:28 exactly except for reversing "God" and "Lord." More broadly, in biblical language "my God" (on the lips of a faithful believer) can refer only to the Lord God of Israel. The language is as definite as it could be and identifies Jesus Christ as God himself. In identifying Jesus as God, Thomas, of course, was not identifying him as the Father. Earlier in the same passage, Jesus had referred to the Father as his God. It is interesting to compare Jesus' wording with the wording of Thomas. Jesus told Mary Magdalene, "I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God" (theon mou kai theon humon, John 20:17).
As in John 1:1 and John 1:18, the Father is called "God" in close proximity to a statement affirming that Jesus is also "God." Here again, as in John 1:18, we do not see the apostle John distinguishing between the Father as "the God" (ho theos) and Jesus the Son as only "God" (theos without the article). In fact, whereas Jesus calls the Father "my God" without the article (theon mou, 20:17), Thomas calls Jesus "my God" with the article (ho theos mou, 20:28)! One could not ask for any clearer evidence that the use or nonuse of the article is irrelevant to the meaning of the word theos. What matters is how the word is used in context. In John 20:28, the apostle reports the most skeptical of disciples making the most exalted of confessions about Jesus.
John expects his readers to view Thomas's confession as a model for them to follow. Recognizing Jesus as the One who has conquered death itself for us, we too are to respond to Jesus and confess that he is our Lord and our God. John's conclusion, at which he wants his readers also to arrive, that Jesus is the Son of God (20:30-31) is not at odds with understanding Thomas's statement in John 20:28 as a model confession of Jesus as Lord and God. In the prologue as well, John insists that Jesus is both God (1:1, 18) and the Son of God (1:14,18).
Dr. D.A. Carson has observed, "This tension between unqualified statements affirming the full deity of the Word or of the Son, and those which distinguish the Word or the Son from the Father, are typical of the Fourth Gospel from the very first verse 1:1. Those who find these descriptions of Jesus impossible to reconcile without denying or diminishing one in favor of the other are laboring under the assumption or presupposition of a unitarian view of God (i.e., the view that God can only be a solitary person, such as in Islam).
To summarize, the Gospel of John explicitly refers to Jesus Christ as "God" three times: at the beginning and end of the prologue (1:1,18) and at the climax of the book (20:28). These three strategically placed affirmations make it clear that Jesus is and always has been God. To say it another way, "In his preincarnate state (1:1), in his incarnate state (1:18), and in his postresurrection state (20:28), Jesus is God. For John, recognition of Christ's deity is the hallmark of the Christian.
The second occurrence of "God" (theos) refers to the Son. We should point out that the Greek manuscripts do not all read the same way here. In fact, the majority of Greek manuscripts say "unique Son" (monogenes huios), which is why the King James Version reads "the only begotten Son." There is significant early manuscript support, however, for the reading "unique [Son], God" (monogenes theos). Two very old papyri, p66 and P75, have been discovered in which Jesus is called theos in John 1:18, and which shift the weight of evidence decidedly over to that reading as most likely to be original."
It is interesting to note that both theon and theos in verse 18 occur without the article." In verse 1, ton theon (with the article) refers to the Father and theos refers to the Son (called the Word). If it were true that John used the article with theon but not with theos in verse 1 in order to indicate that the Son was a lesser type of deity than the Father, it is very strange that he did not maintain this same distinction in verse 18. The affirmation that the "only Son" is himself "God" is a fitting conclusion to the prologue to the Gospel of John. It makes it clear that the one who was God before creation (1:1) was still God when he came to make God the Father known to us through the Incarnation. It has been observed, "Inasmuch as the only Son is God by nature and intimately acquainted with the Father by experience, he is uniquely qualified to reveal the nature and character of God."
Jesus as "My God" is the Climax of John's Gospel (John 20:28). Although the Gospel of John has 21 chapters, the climax of the Gospel comes at the end of chapter 20, when the apostle Thomas confesses Jesus as his Lord and God (v. 28) and John states that the purpose of his Gospel is that people might have life through believing in Jesus as the Son of God (vv. 30-31). We see here the same pattern of thought as in the prologue: Jesus is the Son of God the Father (1:14,18) and yet he is also himself God (1:1,18).
There is essentially no controversy among biblical scholars that in John 20:28 Thomas is referring to and addressing Jesus when he says, "My Lord and my God!" I have read a guy who in his lengthy study on Jesus as God in the New Testament said something like, "This view prevails among grammarians, lexicographers, commentators, and English versions." Indeed, it is difficult to find any contemporary exegetical commentary or academic study that argues that Thomas's words in John 20:28 apply in context to the Father rather than to Jesus. The reason is simple: John prefaces what Thomas said with the words, "Thomas answered and said to Him" (v. 28a). This seemingly redundant wording reflects a Hebrew idiomatic way of introducing someone's response to the previous speaker. John uses it especially frequently, always with the speaker's words directed to the person or persons who have just spoken previously in the narrative. It is therefore certain that Thomas was directing his words to Jesus, not to the Father. No one, of course, would ever have questioned this obvious conclusion if Thomas had said simply "My Lord!" It is the addition of the words "and my God" that have sparked some creative but untenable interpretations of the text.
Thomas's words echo statements addressed in the Psalms to the Lord (Jehovah), especially the following: "Wake up! Bestir yourself for my defense, for my cause, my God and my Lord [ho theos mou kai ho kurios mou]!" (Ps. 35:23). These words parallel those in John 20:28 exactly except for reversing "God" and "Lord." More broadly, in biblical language "my God" (on the lips of a faithful believer) can refer only to the Lord God of Israel. The language is as definite as it could be and identifies Jesus Christ as God himself. In identifying Jesus as God, Thomas, of course, was not identifying him as the Father. Earlier in the same passage, Jesus had referred to the Father as his God. It is interesting to compare Jesus' wording with the wording of Thomas. Jesus told Mary Magdalene, "I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God" (theon mou kai theon humon, John 20:17).
As in John 1:1 and John 1:18, the Father is called "God" in close proximity to a statement affirming that Jesus is also "God." Here again, as in John 1:18, we do not see the apostle John distinguishing between the Father as "the God" (ho theos) and Jesus the Son as only "God" (theos without the article). In fact, whereas Jesus calls the Father "my God" without the article (theon mou, 20:17), Thomas calls Jesus "my God" with the article (ho theos mou, 20:28)! One could not ask for any clearer evidence that the use or nonuse of the article is irrelevant to the meaning of the word theos. What matters is how the word is used in context. In John 20:28, the apostle reports the most skeptical of disciples making the most exalted of confessions about Jesus.
John expects his readers to view Thomas's confession as a model for them to follow. Recognizing Jesus as the One who has conquered death itself for us, we too are to respond to Jesus and confess that he is our Lord and our God. John's conclusion, at which he wants his readers also to arrive, that Jesus is the Son of God (20:30-31) is not at odds with understanding Thomas's statement in John 20:28 as a model confession of Jesus as Lord and God. In the prologue as well, John insists that Jesus is both God (1:1, 18) and the Son of God (1:14,18).
Dr. D.A. Carson has observed, "This tension between unqualified statements affirming the full deity of the Word or of the Son, and those which distinguish the Word or the Son from the Father, are typical of the Fourth Gospel from the very first verse 1:1. Those who find these descriptions of Jesus impossible to reconcile without denying or diminishing one in favor of the other are laboring under the assumption or presupposition of a unitarian view of God (i.e., the view that God can only be a solitary person, such as in Islam).
To summarize, the Gospel of John explicitly refers to Jesus Christ as "God" three times: at the beginning and end of the prologue (1:1,18) and at the climax of the book (20:28). These three strategically placed affirmations make it clear that Jesus is and always has been God. To say it another way, "In his preincarnate state (1:1), in his incarnate state (1:18), and in his postresurrection state (20:28), Jesus is God. For John, recognition of Christ's deity is the hallmark of the Christian.
