WOMEN ARE TO KEEP SILENT IN THE CHURCH

[Doug]

. If it is your view that women church leaders were and are forbidden, then you will have a problem with John 2 commending the elect lady who was leading that church in her home, and who John was teaching how to recognize those whom she should not accept into the fellowship.

2 John does not say she was a bishop of a church,,,,,even if she was this letter was not from Paul and did not contain his doctrine
Even so their were churches under Paul who met in womens houses........[Act 18:2 KJV] 2 And found a certain Jew named Aquila,[G207] born in Pontus, lately come from Italy, with his wife Priscilla; (because that Claudius had commanded all Jews to depart from Rome:) and came unto them........Priscilla was a woman.........[1Co 16:19 KJV] 19 The churches of Asia salute you. Aquila and Priscilla salute you much in the Lord, with the church that is in their house.........the couple had a church meet in their house but doesnt mean she was the bishop of it

 

[Doug]

You (and Doug as well) are mistaking 1 Corinthians 14:34-35 as a directive that Paul authored. It was not. Paul was quoting an excerpt from the Corinthian church's letter to himself, and then Paul proceeded to scold them soundly in 1 Corinthians 14:36-39 for forbidding women to speak in the church assemblies. "FORBID NOT to speak in tongues", Paul told his Corinthian readers. This command from Paul in verse 39 was referring back to the quoted verses 34-35 from the Corinthian letter which was forbidding women to speak, and shows us Paul correcting their restriction on women's verbal participation in the church assembly.

[1Co 14:34-35 KJV] 34 Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but [they are commanded] to be under obedience, as also saith the law. 35 And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church.

This or the surrounding verses dont say Paul was quoting from a letter

It is men who are speaking in tongues as seen in 1 Corinthians 14:21 27 28 30 37 38

[1Ti 2:11-12 KJV] 11 Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection. 12 But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence.

I dont see any justification to say forbid not was to correct them about forbiding women to speak in tongues......he was saying prophesy was better

These verses are along the same lines as 1 Cor 14:34-35 and make it doubtful that they were not written by Paul

 

[3 Resurrections]

2 John does not say she was a bishop of a church,,,,,even if she was this letter was not from Paul and did not contain his doctrine

Do you really believe that Paul and John were teaching different, opposing doctrine on this point? They weren't. Paul did not forbid women to speak and prophesy as leaders in the assemblies, and neither did John. Paul did restrict women from teaching men in a certain "authentein" manner - meaning an overbearing, abusive style (1 Tim. 2:12). Paul wrote that women were to have a peaceable, calm demeanor toward their brothers in the faith ("hesychia"). He did NOT write that they were to be utterly silent ("sige").

But Paul did not forbid women being leaders in the assembly. In fact, he gave Timothy instructions in how he was to treat men and women of all ages who were "presbyteros" AND "presbyteras" as church leaders. There was a certain way in which Timothy was to correct each of these young and old, men AND women elders if they happened to be teaching anything in error, or if they had fallen into any kind of sin for which they needed rebuke (1 Tim. 5:1-2).

2 John includes John's instructions to this "elect lady" as to how she was to vet persons who wished to join her assembly of fellowship (verses 10-11). If the person wishing to join the assembly in her home did not follow and abide in the doctrine of Christ, she was to reject them, and not even bid them "godspeed". This is shepherding activity which a church leader is responsible for performing, in order to protect the flock from doctrinal error.

The church is the family of God in this world. A family ideally is set up with a father AND mother to oversee and protect their children until they become of age. The church should have the same setup, ideally. A single man OR a single woman over the flock is NOT ideal, just as a single-parent family becomes stressed by having to serve in both capacities.

Neither is it ideal for a group of multiple males or a group of multiple females to be leading an assembly. In either case, it becomes too militaristic and combative on one hand, or too "fluffy" and feminized on the other hand. The church needs a blend of BOTH male and female oversight, or the church becomes imbalanced and does not resemble God's ideal pattern for the church as the family of God in this world.

 

[1stCenturyLady]

This passage about the woman nicknamed "Jezebel" calling herself a Prophetess is not a condemnation against all women preachers. It is a condemnation against one particular woman who happened to be teaching error to the church in those first-century days. If it is your view that women church leaders were and are forbidden, then you will have a problem with John 2 commending the elect lady who was leading that church in her home, and who John was teaching how to recognize those whom she should not accept into the fellowship.

You (and Doug as well) are mistaking 1 Corinthians 14:34-35 as a directive that Paul authored. It was not. Paul was quoting an excerpt from the Corinthian church's letter to himself, and then Paul proceeded to scold them soundly in 1 Corinthians 14:36-39 for forbidding women to speak in the church assemblies. "FORBID NOT to speak in tongues", Paul told his Corinthian readers. This command from Paul in verse 39 was referring back to the quoted verses 34-35 from the Corinthian letter which was forbidding women to speak, and shows us Paul correcting their restriction on women's verbal participation in the church assembly.

God poured out His Spirit on both men and women in those first-century days, just as Joel had prophesied. Those gifts of speaking in tongues and prophesying by men and women were supposed to be done for the edification of all in the assembly ("...but the one prophesying speaks to men for edification and encouragement and consolation" - 1 Cor. 14:3). The Corinthian's mention of the "law" for women in verses 34-35 was referring to the traditional Jewish oral laws which had been suppressing women from participation - the kind of oral laws of tradition among the Jews which Christ was frequently in stern disagreement with.

The rabbis in that period had been teaching that it was wrong for females to even be instructed in the Torah by their father. To quote one of them, "Better the words of Torah be burned than be entrusted to women." (Rabbi Eliezer ben Hyrcanus). Unfortunately, this same mentality had been absorbed by the men of the Corinthian assembly as well.

The letter to Thyatira was also a prophecy about the first denomination after Constantine made Christianity legal. It was the longest running denomination and is still thriving today, "And I gave her time to repent of her sexual immorality, and she did not repent." Jezebel is the same spirit that possessed Ahab's wife who was a high priestess of the pagan religion who not only sacrificed live children to Moloch but worshiped a goddess and child. Now all over the world there are goddess and child copies of different names. The third emperor of Rome after Constantine outlawed all pagan religions in Rome such as Venus and Cupid. The pagans were converted to Christianity and to help the transition they renamed their goddess and child to Mary and Jesus. They also used their pagan temples as the first church buildings and well as the pagan priest's clothing and headdresses.

 

[3 Resurrections]

This or the surrounding verses dont say Paul was quoting from a letter

Paul included other subjects in 1 Corinthians from the letter the Corinthians had written to him. ("Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me..." - 1 Cor. 7:1). When Paul wanted to correct the mistaken thoughts which the Corinthians were believing, he used a particular remonstrance. "WHAT? Know ye not..." (as in 1 Cor. 6:16 and 19, and 1 Cor. 11:22).

Paul used the very same corrective remonstrance here in 1 Cor. 14:36. "WHAT? Came the word of God out from you? Or came it unto you only?" Paul was asking the Corinthian men if the word of God had only come to them, or was only being delivered by men in those days. As the prophet Joel had predicted, God had poured out His spirit on ALL flesh, both men and women in those days, and Paul was reminding the Corinthian men of this fact. This indignant protest of Paul in verse 36 was in direct opposition to what he had just quoted from the Corinthian men in the 1 Cor. 14:34-35 verses.

 

[3 Resurrections]

The letter to Thyatira was also a prophecy about the first denomination after Constantine made Christianity legal.

No, Thyatira's mention of Jezebel wasn't a prophecy. It was a declaration about a single individual woman in those first-century days who was then teaching and seducing the servants of God to commit fornication and to eat things offered to idols. If you want to know the actual name of this woman nicknamed "Jezebel" who was calling herself a prophetess, it was Helen, a former prostitute who had come from a brothel in Tyre (the connection to the original Queen Jezebel whose hometown had been Tyre).

This woman Helen had been joined to the cult of the corrupt Simon Magus from Acts 8:9-24. Helen began serving as Simon Magus' consort and fellow-teacher. Together, they had been teaching the "doctrine of Balaam" in the days of the early church, a corrupt doctrine which is excoriated several times in the NT writings and in Revelation 2:14 & 20. One can read about Helen and Simon's history in Eusebius. Simon was pictured as a "dog" that "returned to his vomit", and Helen is the "adulteress" which 2 Peter 2:14 warned about, and "the sow which was washed" which returned to her "wallowing in the mire". God promised to soon kill this woman's converts with death, for their participation in this cult's sinful practices.

 

[soberxp]

No, Thyatira's mention of Jezebel wasn't a prophecy. It was a declaration about a single individual woman in those first-century days who was then teaching and seducing the servants of God to commit fornication and to eat things offered to idols. If you want to know the actual name of this woman nicknamed "Jezebel" who was calling herself a prophetess, it was Helen, a former prostitute who had come from a brothel in Tyre (the connection to the original Queen Jezebel whose hometown had been Tyre).

This woman Helen had been joined to the cult of the corrupt Simon Magus from Acts 8:9-24. Helen began serving as Simon Magus' consort and fellow-teacher. Together, they had been teaching the "doctrine of Balaam" in the days of the early church, a corrupt doctrine which is excoriated several times in the NT writings and in Revelation 2:14 & 20. One can read about Helen and Simon's history in Eusebius. Simon was pictured as a "dog" that "returned to his vomit", and Helen is the "adulteress" which 2 Peter 2:14 warned about, and "the sow which was washed" which returned to her "wallowing in the mire". God promised to soon kill this woman's converts with death, for their participation in this cult's sinful practices.

doctrine of Balaam, where it came from?
He's already dead long time ago. Where did they get his teachings

 

[3 Resurrections]

doctrine of Balaam, where it came from?
He's already dead long time ago. Where did they get his teachings

This first-century cult which was teaching the "doctrine of Balaam" is merely a copy of how the original Balaam got the children of Israel to sin. Some 24,000 of the Israelites were slain by God in the Old Testament for succumbing to the temptation to commit fornication and to eat things sacrificed to idols by joining themselves to the women of Moab in Baal-peor (Numbers 25:1-9).

In the first century, this woman prostitute from the brothel in Tyre named Helen (nicknamed "Jezebel" by John) joined the magician called Simon Magus from Acts 8. Together, they formed a cult (just like the original Balaam) that was teaching gullible members of the early church to eat things sacrificed to idols and to commit fornication as part of their worship practice (Rev. 2:20). You can read more about them in Eusebius. Peter had predicted in Acts 8:23 that Simon Magus would become "a gall of bitterness, and a bond of iniquity" for the early church. This is exactly what happened, with the weak, unstable church members who started to follow this lascivious doctrine, which is rebuked often in the NT epistles.

God gave everyone a space to repent of this corrupt doctrine in those days, but for those who did not, God promised to kill them with death (Rev. 2:23). 2 Peter 2:12-15 wrote that these lustful ones following the "doctrine of Balaam", "having eyes full of an adulteress" (namely Helen who was nicknamed "Jezebel") were going to perish in their own corruption.

 

[Doug]

Do you really believe that Paul and John were teaching different, opposing doctrine on this point? They weren't. Paul did not forbid women to speak and prophesy as leaders in the assemblies, and neither did John. Paul did restrict women from teaching men in a certain "authentein" manner - meaning an overbearing, abusive style (1 Tim. 2:12). Paul wrote that women were to have a peaceable, calm demeanor toward their brothers in the faith ("hesychia"). He did NOT write that they were to be utterly silent ("sige").

But Paul did not forbid women being leaders in the assembly. In fact, he gave Timothy instructions in how he was to treat men and women of all ages who were "presbyteros" AND "presbyteras" as church leaders. There was a certain way in which Timothy was to correct each of these young and old, men AND women elders if they happened to be teaching anything in error, or if they had fallen into any kind of sin for which they needed rebuke (1 Tim. 5:1-2).

2 John includes John's instructions to this "elect lady" as to how she was to vet persons who wished to join her assembly of fellowship (verses 10-11). If the person wishing to join the assembly in her home did not follow and abide in the doctrine of Christ, she was to reject them, and not even bid them "godspeed". This is shepherding activity which a church leader is responsible for performing, in order to protect the flock from doctrinal error.

The church is the family of God in this world. A family ideally is set up with a father AND mother to oversee and protect their children until they become of age. The church should have the same setup, ideally. A single man OR a single woman over the flock is NOT ideal, just as a single-parent family becomes stressed by having to serve in both capacities.

Neither is it ideal for a group of multiple males or a group of multiple females to be leading an assembly. In either case, it becomes too militaristic and combative on one hand, or too "fluffy" and feminized on the other hand. The church needs a blend of BOTH male and female oversight, or the church becomes imbalanced and does not resemble God's ideal pattern for the church as the family of God in this world.

Do you really believe that Paul and John were teaching different, opposing doctrine on this point? They weren't. Paul did not forbid women to speak and prophesy as leaders in the assemblies, and neither did John. Paul did restrict women from teaching men in a certain "authentein" manner - meaning an overbearing, abusive style (1 Tim. 2:12). Paul wrote that women were to have a peaceable, calm demeanor toward their brothers in the faith ("hesychia"). He did NOT write that they were to be utterly silent ("sige").

But Paul did not forbid women being leaders in the assembly. In fact, he gave Timothy instructions in how he was to treat men and women of all ages who were "presbyteros" AND "presbyteras" as church leaders. There was a certain way in which Timothy was to correct each of these young and old, men AND women elders if they happened to be teaching anything in error, or if they had fallen into any kind of sin for which they needed rebuke (1 Tim. 5:1-2).

2 John includes John's instructions to this "elect lady" as to how she was to vet persons who wished to join her assembly of fellowship (verses 10-11). If the person wishing to join the assembly in her home did not follow and abide in the doctrine of Christ, she was to reject them, and not even bid them "godspeed". This is shepherding activity which a church leader is responsible for performing, in order to protect the flock from doctrinal error.

The church is the family of God in this world. A family ideally is set up with a father AND mother to oversee and protect their children until they become of age. The church should have the same setup, ideally. A single man OR a single woman over the flock is NOT ideal, just as a single-parent family becomes stressed by having to serve in both capacities.

Neither is it ideal for a group of multiple males or a group of multiple females to be leading an assembly. In either case, it becomes too militaristic and combative on one hand, or too "fluffy" and feminized on the other hand. The church needs a blend of BOTH male and female oversight, or the church becomes imbalanced and does not resemble God's ideal pattern for the church as the family of God in this world.

**

Do you really believe that Paul and John were teaching different, opposing doctrine on this point?

I wasnt saying their doctrines are different on this point but yes their doctrines in general are different
as an example
Jesus and the twelve taught tithing.......Paul does not
They taught circumcision,,,,,,,,Paul did not

Paul did not forbid women to speak and prophesy as leaders in the assemblies, and neither did John. Paul did restrict women from teaching men in a certain "authentein" manner - meaning an overbearing, abusive style (1 Tim. 2:12). Paul wrote that women were to have a peaceable, calm demeanor toward their brothers in the faith ("hesychia"). He did NOT write that they were to be utterly silent ("sige").

1 Timothy does not say that women could teach the assembly of men if they werent abusive neither did Paul

But Paul did not forbid women being leaders in the assembly. In fact, he gave Timothy instructions in how he was to treat men and women of all ages who were "presbyteros" AND "presbyteras" as church leaders. There was a certain way in which Timothy was to correct each of these young and old, men AND women elders if they happened to be teaching anything in error, or if they had fallen into any kind of sin for which they needed rebuke (1 Tim. 5:1-2).

Women could teach younger women and children........yes Timothy did indeed instruct on how to treat other members

2 John includes John's instructions to this "elect lady" as to how she was to vet persons who wished to join her assembly of fellowship (verses 10-11). If the person wishing to join the assembly in her home did not follow and abide in the doctrine of Christ, she was to reject them, and not even bid them "godspeed". This is shepherding activity which a church leader is responsible for performing, in order to protect the flock from doctrinal error.

This does not support saying she was a pastor
[2Jo 1:8 KJV] 8 Look to yourselves, that we lose not those things which we have wrought, but that we receive a full reward...................he was was reinforcing that she receive a full reward.................[2Jo 1:11 KJV] 11 For he that biddeth him God speed is partaker of his evil deeds..........this could endanger her full reward


The church is the family of God in this world. A family ideally is set up with a father AND mother to oversee and protect their children until they become of age. The church should have the same setup, ideally. A single man OR a single woman over the flock is NOT ideal, just as a single-parent family becomes stressed by having to serve in both capacities.

1 Timothy 3 does not say a bishops office is filled by a man and a woman

 

[Doug]

Paul included other subjects in 1 Corinthians from the letter the Corinthians had written to him. ("Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me..." - 1 Cor. 7:1). When Paul wanted to correct the mistaken thoughts which the Corinthians were believing, he used a particular remonstrance. "WHAT? Know ye not..." (as in 1 Cor. 6:16 and 19, and 1 Cor. 11:22).

Paul used the very same corrective remonstrance here in 1 Cor. 14:36. "WHAT? Came the word of God out from you? Or came it unto you only?" Paul was asking the Corinthian men if the word of God had only come to them, or was only being delivered by men in those days. As the prophet Joel had predicted, God had poured out His spirit on ALL flesh, both men and women in those days, and Paul was reminding the Corinthian men of this fact. This indignant protest of Paul in verse 36 was in direct opposition to what he had just quoted from the Corinthian men in the 1 Cor. 14:34-35 verses.

Paul included other subjects in 1 Corinthians from the letter the Corinthians had written to him. ("Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me..." - 1 Cor. 7:1). When Paul wanted to correct the mistaken thoughts which the Corinthians were believing, he used a particular remonstrance. "WHAT? Know ye not..." (as in 1 Cor. 6:16 and 19, and 1 Cor. 11:22).

Yes Paul was addressing a letter from them and correcting them as you say

Paul used the very same corrective remonstrance here in 1 Cor. 14:36. "WHAT? Came the word of God out from you? Or came it unto you only?" Paul was asking the Corinthian men if the word of God had only come to them, or was only being delivered by men in those days.

It cant be supported that he was correcting them by saying the word of God was coming only from men......[1Co 14:37 KJV] 37 If any man think himself to be a prophet, or spiritual, let him acknowledge that the things that I write unto you are the commandments of the Lord.......Paul was correcting them for not following him as their apostle and the authority to relay the commandments of Christ

 

[Doug]

Paul included other subjects in 1 Corinthians from the letter the Corinthians had written to him. ("Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me..." - 1 Cor. 7:1). When Paul wanted to correct the mistaken thoughts which the Corinthians were believing, he used a particular remonstrance. "WHAT? Know ye not..." (as in 1 Cor. 6:16 and 19, and 1 Cor. 11:22).

Paul used the very same corrective remonstrance here in 1 Cor. 14:36. "WHAT? Came the word of God out from you? Or came it unto you only?" Paul was asking the Corinthian men if the word of God had only come to them, or was only being delivered by men in those days. As the prophet Joel had predicted, God had poured out His spirit on ALL flesh, both men and women in those days, and Paul was reminding the Corinthian men of this fact. This indignant protest of Paul in verse 36 was in direct opposition to what he had just quoted from the Corinthian men in the 1 Cor. 14:34-35 verses.

Just wanted to say......good respectful thoughtful discussion....thanks

 

[Behold]

Reader,

Some of the most anointed ............some of the greatest........some of the most Spiritual.. = Christians who have ever lived, or will ever live, were and are Women.
When Jesus was on earth, and when Paul was on earth.....both had women in their ministry.

The Bible speaks about women as "Prophets". "Deacons"...ect.

Se we are now in the year '2025.....and over 2000 yrs have passed since the early AD Church was mostly in somebody's house, and Paul gave some rules to keep order in this situation....... as at that time.. men were on one side and their wives and daughters were on the other.. and there was "too much talking" during the preaching......so, Paul said....."ladies.... keep quiet"....... and then the men would, as they would not be talking to their wives.

So, in the '2025....... when teaching on "What is a woman's role in the Body of Christ"...... the answer is.....>"everything", except for one.

She can be an author, a teacher, a "christian" forum Mod... an evangelist, a deacon, a preacher...........all of it.......except for one thing.

A women, according to Paul's NT Doctrine, cannot be """The HUSBAND of one Wife""'.........so, that means she can't qualify to be the PASTOR of a Local Church.......and today when you find a woman in that "Pastor" role, then you've found a problem, that is a rejection of the NT.

 

[Doug]

A women, according to Paul's NT Doctrine, cannot be """The HUSBAND of one Wife""'.........so, that means she can't qualify to be the PASTOR of a Local Church.......and today when. you find a woman in that role, then you've found a problem, that is a rejection of the NT.

I agree...the posts and discussions are specific.....women in general play a prominent and needful ministry......the only issue I dont see them being deacons either.............[1Ti 3:12 KJV] 12 Let the deacons be the husbands of one wife, ruling their children and their own houses well........same qualification for deacons.....husband of one wife

Thanks for good respectful discussions

 

[3 Resurrections]

1 Timothy does not say that women could teach the assembly of men if they werent abusive neither did Paul

The prohibition in 1 Timothy 2:12 is specifically against "authentein" teaching of men, as opposed to the desired calm, peaceable manner ("hesychia"). This word "authentein" indicated abusive, overbearing treatment that the Ephesian women were using over the men of the church in that city which was well-known for their worship of the goddess Diana. If Paul had meant to prohibit any occasions of women teaching men, he would never have given instructions to women in how they were to prophesy in the church. The very reason the gift of prophesy was given was to be an edification and a comfort to men (see 1 Cor. 14:3 - "...the one prophesying speaks to men for edification and encouragement and consolation.") Women weren't prophesying in a closet in those days; it was in the assemblies alongside men who were doing the same, and was done for the good of the whole church to mutually benefit thereby.

Women could teach younger women and children........yes Timothy did indeed instruct on how to treat other members

You are missing Paul's point to Timothy. This was ELDERS - not just fellow church members - which Paul was teaching Timothy how to correct when they had gone astray in their teaching. A "presyterO" is a male elder church leader, and "presbyterAS" is referring to women elders who were church leaders in those 1 Timothy 5:1-2 verses.

It cant be supported that he was correcting them by saying the word of God was coming only from men......[1Co 14:37 KJV] 37 If any man think himself to be a prophet, or spiritual, let him acknowledge that the things that I write unto you are the commandments of the Lord.......Paul was correcting them for not following him as their apostle and the authority to relay the commandments of Christ

These verses of 1 Cor. 14:36-39 use masculine pronouns in the original Greek. Which means Paul was addressing the males of the Corinthian church in this context. The men of the Corinthian church were the ones Paul was correcting by telling them "FORBID NOT to speak in tongues". Women were not to be prohibited from speaking in tongues by the men in the congregation. They were to be allowed to speak in tongues AND to prophesy as well in the assembly - always provided that everyone followed the rules which Paul laid down for this (one at a time, two or three at the most, and with an interpreter operating).

 

[Hey You!]

I agree...the posts and discussions are specific.....women in general play a prominent and needful ministry......the only issue I dont see them being deacons either.............[1Ti 3:12 KJV] 12 Let the deacons be the husbands of one wife, ruling their children and their own houses well........same qualification for deacons.....husband of one wife

Thanks for good respectful discussions

One tactic can be to treat the Bible like you're in a Book Club. We're all in the book store at a Club. One person disagrees with Women not being allowed to Pastor. Another person says, "I get it; but we're talking about the Book and what it says. Let's talk about the Narrative"...

The Church is essentially a Book Club. I've thought about writing a Gospel Tract about this; but I have enough for every day of the year already...

 

[3 Resurrections]

A women, according to Paul's Doctrine, cannon be "The HUSBAND of one Wife'.........so, that means she can't qualify to be the PASTOR of a Local Church.......and when you find that, then you've found a problem, that is a rejection of the NT.

Polygamy was a problem for men in those days. Male candidates for the ministry could not have multiple wives if they desired to serve as an overseer. One wife only for male overseers and for male deacons. But for women elders in church leadership (the "presbyteras" of 1 Tim. 5:1-2), having multiple husbands was NOT an issue of any kind which needed to be addressed by Paul. You are trying to over-extend this text to invent a prohibition against women elders, when the language doesn't go there.

 

[Behold]

.[1Ti 3:12 KJV] 12 Let the deacons be the husbands of one wife, ruling their children and their own houses well........same qualification for deacons.....husband of one wife

Yes, it says that..

However, Paul also wrote Romans.... and Phoebe is described as a "deaconess) (servant) of the church in Cenchreae," (A church near Corinth).

Here is the thing about Paul's Doctrine..........Its very pure, in the sense that He does not leave any room for "situations" to arise .......but at the same time, he is flexible regarding some = situations.

For example He would that everyone stay single......but, recognizes that this isn't possible for everyone.

Why does Paul want everyone to stay single? Its because when you are single you are not having to deal with "married with children" 24/7, and that allows you to spend all your time doing God's Work.
Paul was very very single minded regarding his Total Devotion to God, and so.. His Doctrine, that is "Holy Spirit inspired"... allows in the case of "women as deacons", some consideration.

 

[Doug]

The prohibition in 1 Timothy 2:12 is specifically against "authentein" teaching of men, as opposed to the desired calm, peaceable manner ("hesychia"). This word "authentein" indicated abusive, overbearing treatment that the Ephesian women were using over the men of the church in that city which was well-known for their worship of the goddess Diana. If Paul had meant to prohibit any occasions of women teaching men, he would never have given instructions to women in how they were to prophesy in the church. The very reason the gift of prophesy was given was to be an edification and a comfort to men (see 1 Cor. 14:3 - "...the one prophesying speaks to men for edification and encouragement and consolation.") Women weren't prophesying in a closet in those days; it was in the assemblies alongside men who were doing the same, and was done for the good of the whole church to mutually benefit thereby.

You are missing Paul's point to Timothy. This was ELDERS - not just fellow church members - which Paul was teaching Timothy how to correct when they had gone astray in their teaching. A "presyterO" is a male elder church leader, and "presbyterAS" is referring to women elders who were church leaders in those 1 Timothy 5:1-2 verses.

These verses of 1 Cor. 14:36-39 use masculine pronouns in the original Greek. Which means Paul was addressing the males of the Corinthian church in this context. The men of the Corinthian church were the ones Paul was correcting by telling them "FORBID NOT to speak in tongues". Women were not to be prohibited from speaking in tongues by the men in the congregation. They were to be allowed to speak in tongues AND to prophesy as well in the assembly - always provided that everyone followed the rules which Paul laid down for this (one at a time, two or three at the most, and with an interpreter operating).

he prohibition in 1 Timothy 2:12 is specifically against "authentein" teaching of men, as opposed to the desired calm, peaceable manner ("hesychia").

I see it as women taking authority on their own

You are missing Paul's point to Timothy. This was ELDERS - not just fellow church members - which Paul was teaching Timothy how to correct when they had gone astray in their teaching. A "presyterO" is a male elder church leader, and "presbyterAS" is referring to women elders who were church leaders in those 1 Timothy 5:1-2 verses.

[1Ti 5:1-2 KJV] 1 Rebuke not an elder, but intreat [him] as a father; [and] the younger men as brethren; 2 The elder women as mothers; the younger as sisters, with all purity.
Just based on the verses it can be seen elders are older, he is speaking of age......younger men.......younger women are in contrast

 

[Doug]

However, Paul also wrote Romans.... and Phoebe is described as a "deaconess) (servant) of the church in Cenchreae," (A church near Corinth).

I dont hold to questioning Greek wording but the same word servant can be translated deacon,,,,,,i see no translation to expand this word to deaconess

 

[Behold]

,,i see no translation to expand this word to deaconess

Here are 3. (Deacon // Deaconess}
-
-
NIV:

""I commend to you our sister Phoebe, a deacon of the church in Cenchreae.""

New Living Translation :

""I commend to you our sister Phoebe, who is a deacon in the church in Cenchrea.""

Amplified Bible:

""Now I introduce and commend to you our sister Phoebe, a deaconess (servant) of Cenchrea""