quietthinker
Well-Known Member
yes, I'm a very bad boy........now that I stand condemned in your view, do you have any good news? :)and I see that you don't like TRUTH! You have been exposed here for your false beliefs!
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yes, I'm a very bad boy........now that I stand condemned in your view, do you have any good news? :)and I see that you don't like TRUTH! You have been exposed here for your false beliefs!
You actually demonstrate the meaning of the Greek “pro·sky·neʹo”, which corresponds closely with the Hebrew sha·hhahʹ as to conveying the thought of both obeisance to creatures and worship to God or a deity.Worship is simple. It's when people show respect or honor to others. Lot worshipped the strangers who came to Sodom even though he had never seen them before. He prostrated himself before them to show them respect. Gen. 19:1
In Exodus 18:7, Moses worshipped his father-in-law.
Trinitarians say, "only God can forgive sins." - 100% false
Trinitarians say, only "God can be worshipped." - 100% false.
The biblical record proves that when someone shows honor to another, they would fall down before another. The act of falling down is worship and shows respect and honor to the one being worshipped.
My point was that inaccurate rendering of "proskyneō" makes "obeisance" appear to be "worship", when in English, it means more than a simple act of reverence or homage....it is understood as an act performed towards God alone, as Jesus confirmed in Luke 4:8.I'm not using ONE word for worship because their meaning is the same throughout the New and Old Testaments.
Obeisance is šāḥâ. It's the same word translated as worship, bow, bow down obeisance etc. Most translations use the terminology of bowing down.
NEW King James Version and several others word it as follows...
So Moses went out to meet his father-in-law, bowed down, and kissed him. And they asked each other about their well-being, and they went into the tent.
But that hardly matters.
šāḥâ - to bow down (Qal) to bow down
What does the NT word proskyneō mean?
to kiss the hand to (towards) one, in token of reverence
among the Orientals, esp. the Persians, to fall upon the knees and touch the ground with the forehead as an expression of profound reverence
in the NT by kneeling or prostration to do homage (to one) or make obeisance, whether in order to express respect or to make supplication
The meaning and usage is the same in either Hebrew, Aramaic, or Greek. These words for worship are also used to indicate false gods.
Not sure if your understanding of what EG White taught and wrote is a deliberate mis-characterisation and distortion off the truth, or just a simple complete nonsense born of lazy investigation. I'll give you the benefit of the doubt. It's both. Which leaves me with only one option in response. Go and study, read her writings in person, don't believe other's lying testimony as to what she wrote, and come back and tell the truth.White is on record of saying, that those who worship the Lord on Sundays, will receive the mark of the beast. this means that the New Testament Worshippers, including the Disciples, and Paul, and the GREATER MAJORITY, 99% of Christians, are in hell!
This is what Paul calls, "teaching of demons"
Titus 2:13 in GreekExodus 20:3: “You shall have no other gods before Me.”
Titus 2:13: "waiting for our blessed hope, the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ,"
John 5:18
18 "This was why the Jews were seeking all the more to kill him, because not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was even calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God."
Matthew 2:11
11 "And going into the house, they saw the child with Mary his mother, and they fell down and worshiped him. Then, opening their treasures, they offered him gifts, gold and frankincense and myrrh."
Luke 24:52
52 "And they worshiped him and returned to Jerusalem with great joy,"
If Jesus is not God incarnate, why do we worship Him? His identity itself is divine! And, He ain't no "angel"! Archangel or any other kind of angel.
5 Bible Verses about Angels Not To Be Worshipped
Revelation 22:8-9
I, John, am the one who heard and saw these things. And when I heard and saw, I fell down to worship at the feet of the angel who showed me these things. But he *said to me, “Do not do that. I am a fellow servant of yours and of your brethren the prophets and of those who heed the words of this book. Worship God.”
Matthew 4:9-10
and he said to Him, “All these things I will give You, if You fall down and worship me.” Then Jesus *said to him, “Go, Satan! For it is written, ‘You shall worship the Lord your God, and serve Him only.’”
Luke 4:7-8
Therefore if You worship before me, it shall all be Yours.” Jesus answered him, “It is written, ‘You shall worship the Lord your God and serve Him only.’”
Romans 1:25
"For they exchanged the truth of God for a lie, and worshiped and served the creature rather than the Creator, who is blessed forever. Amen."
Colossians 2:18
"Let no one keep defrauding you of your prize by delighting in self-abasement and the worship of the angels, taking his stand on visions he has seen, inflated without cause by his fleshly mind,"
Source: 5 Bible verses about Angels Not To Be Worshipped
So then, how do those who worship angel/angels get past these verses? Seems they might have to jump through a whole lotta hoops to make this into "a" truth...?
I am truly interested in what some of our beloved JW's have to say about this...please though, not a million para's...I'm slow like that![]()
I'm sorry Barney but, I simply wanted to know who worships Jesus Christ as Lord, or...not.Titus 2:13 in Greek
τοῦ μεγάλου θεοῦ καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ
(tou me·gaʹlou The·ouʹ kai so·teʹros he·monʹ Khri·stouʹ I·e·souʹ)
Henry Alford, in The Greek Testament, states: “I would submit that a rendering that clearly differentiates God and Christ, at Titus 2:13 satisfies all the grammatical requirements of the sentence: that it is both structurally and contextually more probable, and more agreeable to the Apostle’s way of writing.”—(Boston, 1877), Vol. III, p. 421.
Regarding John 5:18, Who said that Jesus was making himself equal to God? Not Jesus. He defended himself against this false charge in the very next verse at John 5:19 “To this accusation Jesus replied: . . . ‘the Son can do nothing by himself; he can do only what he sees the Father doing."
By this, Jesus showed the Jews that he was not equal to God and therefore could not act on his own initiative. Can we imagine someone equal to Almighty God saying that he could “do nothing by himself”? Interestingly, the context of both John 5:18 and John10:30 shows that Jesus defended himself against false charges from Jews who, like the Trinitarians, were drawing wrong conclusions!
At Luke 24:52 NWT - And they did obeisance to him and returned to Jerusalem with great joy. And they were continually in the temple, praising God.
The Greek Word proskyneo describes persons’ actions toward Jesus, the evidence does not warrant reading too much into this rendering. Rather, the circumstances that evoked the obeisance correspond very closely to those producing obeisance to the earlier prophets and kings, and you don't worship human prophet's or kings.(Compare Matthew 8:2; 9:18; 15:25; 20:20 with 1 Samuel 25:23, 24; 2 Samuel 14:4-7; 1 kings 1:16; 2 Kings 4:36, 37.) The very expressions of those involved often reveal that, while they clearly recognized Jesus as God’s representative, they rendered obeisance to him, not worship as to God or a deity, but as “God’s Son,” the foretold “Son of man,” the Messiah with divine authority. On many occasions their obeisance expressed a gratitude for divine revelation or evidence of favor like that expressed in earlier times.(Matthew 14:32, 33; 28:5-10, 16-18; Luke 24:50-52; John 9:35, 38.)
Worship isn't suppose to be given to Jesus, we should give obeisance to him because we recognize that Jesus is that seed of promise at Genesis 3:15. The only begotten Son of God when in heaven was the only begotten Son of God before he came to earth as a sinless flesh and blood human, so the only begotten Son of God is the Word, which means, it was the only begotten Son of God who became flesh/human. Jesus isn't God incarnate, Jesus Christ is the only begotten Son of God. It was the only begotten Son of God who became a fully perfect sinless human just as the first Adam was before he sinned. Those who say it was God who became flesh/human at John 1:14 are denying the Word is the only begotten Son of God and so are denying it was the only begotten Son of God who became flesh/human and came to the world of mankind. They're denying John 3:16.
I agree with much of what you have said above. The Son was subordinate to His Father, and rightly so for such is righteousness. This is evidence indeed of a Godhead not necessarily reflected in trinitarian doctrine. However, a subordinate Son who is yet the express image of His Father, (unlike human sons who are not the express images of their parents but a reduced composite with traces of likeness) may still be worthy of true worship, of the Father declares it appropriate, and He has...I have not yet found a JW who can comprehensively defend their position against verses such that do describe worship by disciples throughout Jesus' life, and this...Titus 2:13 in Greek
τοῦ μεγάλου θεοῦ καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ
(tou me·gaʹlou The·ouʹ kai so·teʹros he·monʹ Khri·stouʹ I·e·souʹ)
Henry Alford, in The Greek Testament, states: “I would submit that a rendering that clearly differentiates God and Christ, at Titus 2:13 satisfies all the grammatical requirements of the sentence: that it is both structurally and contextually more probable, and more agreeable to the Apostle’s way of writing.”—(Boston, 1877), Vol. III, p. 421.
Regarding John 5:18, Who said that Jesus was making himself equal to God? Not Jesus. He defended himself against this false charge in the very next verse at John 5:19 “To this accusation Jesus replied: . . . ‘the Son can do nothing by himself; he can do only what he sees the Father doing."
By this, Jesus showed the Jews that he was not equal to God and therefore could not act on his own initiative. Can we imagine someone equal to Almighty God saying that he could “do nothing by himself”? Interestingly, the context of both John 5:18 and John10:30 shows that Jesus defended himself against false charges from Jews who, like the Trinitarians, were drawing wrong conclusions!
At Luke 24:52 NWT - And they did obeisance to him and returned to Jerusalem with great joy. And they were continually in the temple, praising God.
The Greek Word proskyneo describes persons’ actions toward Jesus, the evidence does not warrant reading too much into this rendering. Rather, the circumstances that evoked the obeisance correspond very closely to those producing obeisance to the earlier prophets and kings, and you don't worship human prophet's or kings.(Compare Matthew 8:2; 9:18; 15:25; 20:20 with 1 Samuel 25:23, 24; 2 Samuel 14:4-7; 1 kings 1:16; 2 Kings 4:36, 37.) The very expressions of those involved often reveal that, while they clearly recognized Jesus as God’s representative, they rendered obeisance to him, not worship as to God or a deity, but as “God’s Son,” the foretold “Son of man,” the Messiah with divine authority. On many occasions their obeisance expressed a gratitude for divine revelation or evidence of favor like that expressed in earlier times.(Matthew 14:32, 33; 28:5-10, 16-18; Luke 24:50-52; John 9:35, 38.)
Worship isn't suppose to be given to Jesus, we should give obeisance to him because we recognize that Jesus is that seed of promise at Genesis 3:15. The only begotten Son of God when in heaven was the only begotten Son of God before he came to earth as a sinless flesh and blood human, so the only begotten Son of God is the Word, which means, it was the only begotten Son of God who became flesh/human. Jesus isn't God incarnate, Jesus Christ is the only begotten Son of God. It was the only begotten Son of God who became a fully perfect sinless human just as the first Adam was before he sinned. Those who say it was God who became flesh/human at John 1:14 are denying the Word is the only begotten Son of God and so are denying it was the only begotten Son of God who became flesh/human and came to the world of mankind. They're denying John 3:16.
Agreed BL, good post. I've read before how the word used for worship can change like, "simple obeisance" is used for Kings and dignitaries but for in spiritual matters it changes to pure worship of a divine being.I agree with much of what you have said above. The Son was subordinate to His Father, and rightly so for such is righteousness. This is evidence indeed of a Godhead not necessarily reflected in trinitarian doctrine. However, a subordinate Son who is yet the express image of His Father, (unlike human sons who are not the express images of their parents but a reduced composite with traces of likeness) may still be worthy of true worship, of the Father declares it appropriate, and He has...I have not yet found a JW who can comprehensively defend their position against verses such that do describe worship by disciples throughout Jesus' life, and this...
KJV Hebrews 1:8
8 But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom.
While the word for worship can be used as simple obeisance, it is also used for true worship of the deity, a point JWs would like to ignore in favor of the negative. And it is used in reference to Christ.
I do not think Jesus is going to rebuke anyone in heaven for worshipping Him, and confessing Him as "my Lord and my God".