BreadOfLife
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- Jan 2, 2017
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It's good to examine scripture, so lets see what these verses actually say, as opposed to how they have been interpreted.
First of all these scriptures were written by Jews, with a Jewish understanding of scripture, so beginning with Isaiah, these verses say....
"Therefore, Jehovah himself will give you a sign: Look! The young woman will become pregnant and will give birth to a son, and she will name him Im·manʹu·el."
A young woman or virgin would give birth to this promised one and he would be called "Immanuel"....was Mary's son named Immanuel? Obviously not because he was always called Jesus (or Yeshua). So what is the meaning of the name Immanuel?..."With us is God". How was God "with" his people in ancient times?....it was by means of the ones he chose to represent him...men like Abraham, Moses, Elijah...and finally, Jesus.
"For a child has been born to us,
A son has been given to us;
And the rulership will rest on his shoulder.
His name will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Eternal Father, Prince of Peace."
Does calling the promised Messiah "Mighty God" mean that he is the "Almighty" God?
Is he a "father" in the same sense that Jehovah is? A father is a life giver.....and so was Jesus.
Why call a King, a "Prince".....a prince is the son of a king. You have misinterpreted that whole prophesy trying to prop up a lie.
According to Strongs Concordance, the meaning of the word "god" (El) is...
- god, god-like one, mighty one
- mighty men, men of rank, mighty heroes
- angels
- god, false god, (demons, imaginations)
- God, the one true God, Jehovah
So this word does not always refer to Jehovah.
How does Jesus himself explain the use of the word "god" in relation to humans?
In John 10:31-36, he says to the Jews who were trying to pin a charge of blasphemy on him....
“I displayed to you many fine works from the Father. For which of those works are you stoning me?” 33 The Jews answered him: “We are stoning you, not for a fine work, but for blasphemy; for you, although being a man, make yourself a god.” 34 Jesus answered them: “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said: “You are gods”’? 35 If he called ‘gods’ those against* whom the word of God came—and yet the scripture cannot be nullified— 36 do you say to me whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, ‘I am God’s Son’?"
Jesus was referring to judges in Israel whom his Father called "gods" because their position in judging his people was authorized by him.
One who represents the true God can rightly be called a "god" according the meaning of those terms which both the Jews and Christians of the first century understood. The trinity was not a belief held by the first Christians...it was not until the foretold apostasy had overtaken the church that this blasphemous teaching took hold.
So, from a Jewish perspective, rather than a Catholic one, you can see how these verses should be understood.
Both relate to the promised Messiah whom the Jews knew was coming.
They had a slightly different understanding at that point in history, but the "sacred secret" or "mystery" of the Kingdom was not fully revealed until Christ came.
What about John 1:1? Using the same understanding of the term "god" ("theos" in Greek) we again see that interpretation is the problem.
John was not saying that Jesus was Almighty God but that he was a godlike one.
The word "theos" according to Strongs primary definition is...
"a god or goddess, a general name of deities or divinities."
So again, Jesus is rightly said to be "a god"....a divine being of course, but not God incarnate. The Jews would never have accepted a Messiah who claimed to be God, as that would have given them grounds to execute him for blasphemy....but he had to die as an innocent man.
He is also said to be "with God" "in the beginning"....so we then have to ask...how can Jesus be "with God" if he IS God?
And "what beginning"is this?...because we know that the eternal being that is Jehovah had no beginning....but according to Revelation 3:14, God's son was the "beginning of God's creation".....so Jesus is not God, but has been "with God" since his creation. He is God's "firstborn". (Colossians 1:15)
The woeful misinterpretation of scripture by the church system that began with the RCC and its predecessors, is responsible for the "many" heading for the destruction that Jesus foretold in Matthew 7:13-14. Only a "few" relatively speaking, are on the narrow road to life.
This entire diatribe is a textbook example of the Scriptural acrobatics employed by Jehovah’s Witnesses. The fact that you have to go into such a verbose rant in order to explain a single line of Scripture is an immediate red flag. As to the perversions in the New World Translation – that is an enormous topic for another thread . . . For starters – there only ONE God, and to suggest otherwise is a violation of the First Commandment. This destroys your argument that “El” in Isa. 9:6 can be a reference to a man. An if that isn’t enough to sink that position – I challenge you to show me ONE example of this word being used to describe a man in Scripture. | |