face2face
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Correct....I'm going to provide you quotes to supportThe only reason Christ died was because He gave Himself up to His Father's will, and to death.
The death he died, he died to sin once for all; but the life he lives, he lives to God.
In what way did Christ die to sin once and how does that sin relate to his death?
The law only had power over Him negate He voluntarily accepted the responsibility for every sin and iniquity of mankind.
Correct - but how were those sins represented in him?
He himself bore our sins in his body on the tree, that we might die to sin and live to righteousness. By his wounds you have been healed. 1 Peter 2:24
How were your sins represented in his body on the tree?
Think Brakelite!
He personally knew no sin nor did He have any proclivity or propensity toward sin.
Incorrect! He had the ability to sin otherwise God had no Victory over Sin's Flesh!
For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sin. Hebrews 4:15
He had our weakness in nature which is why he can sympathize.
But die He most certainly did.
Complete and total death - cease to exist in everyway!
And when He became a man.
God's Word was sent forth and He had a Son through Mary!
He didn't leave anything behind. He was still the Son of God, but refused to use His divine prerogative for self defence.
He had no Divine prerogative as you are told
And Jesus increased in wisdom and in stature and in favor with God and man. Luke 2:52
God has never explained the oneness of existence between Himself and His Son. It is a mystery known only to divinity.
No, the relationship between the Father and Son is well documented. What you mean to say is the dogma is not given explanation in the Word of God and for good reason!
This is why we must never attempt to explain it.
LOL you have taken the Mystery to the lengths the Jews did of using the Fathers name - wow surely someone of your intelligence can see the folly in this position?
Even if God did provide an explanation, it would probably be beyond our comprehension to understand it. Can the finite comprehend the infinite?
The exalted position of the Son of Man to become the Son of God with Power is very easy to understanding once you have the correct understanding. Lacking that will always end up with unintelligible mystery.
Jesus said, "I and my Father are one," but the Jews misunderstood His statement, assuming He was claiming equality with God (John 10:33). Trinitarians often make the same mistake. The oneness Jesus referred to is not a declaration that He is "Very God," but rather a unity of purpose. Consider the following evidence:The Jews certainly realised though what Jesus was claiming. John recorded (this was after Jesus had said that He and His Father were one) “Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him. Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me? The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.” John 10:31-33 There can be no mistaking as to what the Jews understood Jesus to be saying. It was that He was God (theos). To many of the Jews, particularly the Scribes and the Pharisees, this was “blasphemy”.
Jesus later prayed for His disciples, saying, "that they may be one, as we are" (John 17:11, 21). This clearly shows that the unity He spoke of extends to His disciples as well. The unity He refers to is not the shared power of the Godhead, but the unity that comes from being sanctified through the word of God (John 17:14, 17, 18).
In John 17:22-23, Jesus prays, "that they may be one, even as we are one: I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one..." These words emphasize a relationship between the disciples and Christ that mirrors the unity between the Son and the Father—a unity of purpose and perfection aligned with the divine will.
Unfortunately Brakelite, the dogma has removed your ability to read in context which means you draw to incorrect conclusions about the text.
If Christ had not been God then they would have been correct.
Another false conclusion.
Let me ask this question...If you do the Will of God perfectly could you claim equality in mind and purpose with God? Did men like Moses speak the Word of God with complete authority to do so?
The same reaction came when Jesus healed the impotent man on the Sabbath. John recorded (another of the signs to show that Christ was the Son of God) “And therefore did the Jews persecute Jesus, and sought to slay him, because he had done these things on the sabbath day. But Jesus answered them, My Father worketh hitherto, and I work. Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God.” John 5:16-18
"My Father worketh..." – There are two key points here:
- Jesus was the Son of God (Not God Himself)
- God did not cease working on the Sabbath
Why highlight the Father/Son relationship? Consider the Fifth Commandment: "Honor thy father..." (Exodus 20:8-12). Compare this with John 5:23, which emphasizes that people must honor the relationship between the Father and the work He continues.
In John 5:19-20 The Father shows – The Son sees and does! Jesus personalized the record!
For some reason you equate equality in mind and purpose to mean you are God - this is flawed reasoning as the Angels do the Will of God and they are not Him Ps 103:20
Correct - Not God Himself - you state an important distinctionWe need to remember that John wrote his Gospel with the intent of proving Christ to be the Son of God (John 20:31)
– which terminology means that Christ is God (John 1:1).
Then you fall and stumble over imported dogma...every time
We can see therefore why the Holy Spirit led this Gospel writer to select these discussions that Jesus had with the Jews. They tell us so much. They tell us how the Jews understood Christ’s words. Jesus though had not made Himself God.
Because he was not...he was a Son
His existence as a separate person from God was by the pleasure of the Father (Colossians 1:19). The Jews called God their Father. They must have realised therefore that Jesus was not claiming this in the same sense as they were claiming it else they would not have condemned Him for it. They must have understood Him to be claiming God as His Father in a very literal sense.
He was in a literal sense the Son of God BUT also the Son of Man!
This is why they said He was making Himself equal with God. Jesus did not say they had misunderstood His words. In personality He was not the one true God (the Father) but He was manifesting God in the flesh.
Correct - Jesus made known his Fathers Character and Will in how he lived - God was in Christ (mind) reconciling the World to Himself.
It is no wonder therefore that God led the prophet Isaiah to prophecy of the coming Messiah “For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.” Isaiah 9:6
God would have a Son and give him these blessings! His determinate council and foreknowledge prophetically uttered these words knowing what manner of Son he would have! Imagine the pleasure God would have in having a Son who could manifest Him perfectly?
It brings to mind that beautiful verse in Hebrews 2L!3
And again, “I (God) will put my trust in him (Jesus).” And again, “Behold, I (Jesus) and the children (us) God has given me (Jesus).”
Boy Brakelite, if you can't piece that together you might never before he comes.
F2F
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