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Ahhh... The Greek for falling away is apostasia.... Another word for apostasy. Nothing to do with the rapture!
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The Greek for falling away is apostasia.... Another word for apostasy. Nothing to do with the rapture!
TWC said
What that says to me is that you do not have the ability, because this is indeed what the bible teaches.
This is an example of the fallacy called elephant hurling.
Makes more sense? Jesus said that many would fall away from the faith in the end times and therefore would be biblically consistent to believe that when Paul mentions an apostasy, he's talking about the defection from the faith that Jesus had already said would happen. It only makes better sense to you because it supports your doctrine.Then why was it translated "departure/departing" until the KJV came along? "apostasy" is an English word coined by borrowing directly from the Greek word "apostasia"; it is one possible meaning, but plain "departure" is another possible meaning, and one that makes better sense in the context.
You wouldn't listen anyway, so why should I waste my time?
TWC:
I won't heed poorly argued stuff which is a mix of bare assertion and blatant eisegesis. If you have sound biblical arguments, that would be another matter.
"Departure" makes more sense, because it is being used as a sign to show the Thessalonians that the Day of the Lord cannot yet have started. A sign has to be a distinct and identifiable event. A vague term like "falling away" does not fit the bill.
But in 2 Thess 2 Paul gives two events which must precede the Day of the Lord, in order to reassure his readers that the Day has not yet come. The revealing of the man of sin is one specific event; it is very likely indeed that the other event is also specific. The translation "departure" is available and was used up until the 17th century.
That's a little more than what I said. My point is that while it was well thought out and well written, there were many points made in the OP that run contrary to what the Bible says, and that those who are in agreement with his post may want to exercise some discernment.TWC ... trying to validate your claims by saying it is nausating? Believe me or this will make me sick? I agree with Oliver tis but... elephant hurling.
there were many points made in the OP that run contrary to what the Bible say
2 events must precede the Lords coming and our gathering together to him.
How can one of those events be our gathering to him (the rapture)?
the scripture says be caught up in the air with the Lord forever... and they assume they will be in the air forwever with the Lord. But that is not what it says
jeffweeder:
That is not what the scripture says.
Now concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered together to him, we ask you, brothers, not to be quickly shaken in mind or alarmed, either by a spirit or a spoken word, or a letter seeming to be from us, to the effect that the day of the Lord has come. Let no one deceive you in any way. For that day will not come, unless the apostasia comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction,
The general subject is the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered together to him,
Trekson, then who is the bride of Christ?
jeffweeder, it isn't clear what is confusing you. I am guessing that you see the rapture happening simultaneously with "the appearance of his coming" If that is so, it is a false equation. When Jesus takes his church and meets us in the air; he does not yet come to earth. His "coming" means his coming to earth.