Why did he say, after the 62 weeks? What is your clear and simple answer?Where is there any indication in the prophecy itself that the 70 determined weeks would not all be continuous from beginning to end? Why would just the first 69 weeks be continuous and then a large gap?
Not to me it isn't. When week 1 ended, week 2 began. When week 2 ended, week 3 began. And so on up until week 69. When that time period ended, week 70 began.
You make it ambiguous, not me. It's not ambiguous at all to me.
Why does it all have to be explicitly spelled out to you in order for you to discern what it means? There is no basis whatsoever for putting any gaps in the 70 weeks.
The six things listed in the following verse had to all be fulfilled within the 70 weeks. Do you think Christ's death was not necessary for these things to be fulfilled?
Daniel 9:24 Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city, to finish the transgression, and to make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity, and to bring in everlasting righteousness, and to seal up the vision and prophecy, and to anoint the most Holy.
For example, how else can reconciliation for iniquity be made apart from the shed blood of Christ?
Hebrews 2:17 Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people.
Much love!
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