You are so full of yourself. Get off you high Pharisaic seat before you fall off. Pride cometh before a fall.
Common reply by a dodger of the facts.
What about my blog on the 2 Thess. 2 chapter that you guys get all wrong. I destroys your thesis by showing that the whole premise you hold on it meaning a "falling away" [from the faith] is wrongheaded, and it came about mainly because the Church of England, via the KJV translators were taking a pot shot at the RCC , its arche rival, but both churches at that time, were pure evil, torturing people etc. etc. M blog of 8 or so years ago destroys this whole thesis that Thess. 2:2 proves a post/mid trib. rapture.
Is the Falling Away a False Teaching?
I have evolved with much study on this. I used to argue to all that there had to be this great Falling Away also. All because of this one passage. 2 Thessalonians 2:3. I do agree that the world gets far more evil towards the end (now), as foretold in Romans chapter 1, and as Peter said, there will be scoffers in the last days etc. etc. But I do not think the true church can “Fall Away”, either you are of Christ/God or you are not, and will get left behind by the Bridegroom. Anyway, here is my understanding of 2 Thessalonians 2:3.
“Let no one in any way deceive you, for it will not come unless the apostasy comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction…” – 2 Thessalonians 2:3 (NASB) This verse is used by many and they say it implies a “Falling Away” from the faith(apostacy). But a guy named Tommy Ice has shed some exceptional light on this passage.
Mr. Ice has pointed out that the Greek noun, apostasia, is used only twice in the new testament. The other occurrence is in Acts 21:21 where it states that an accusation was made against Paul that he was “teaching all the Jews who are among the Gentiles to forsake [apostasia] Moses.”
The word is used in verb form a total of 15 times in the new testament, and only three of these have anything to do with a departure from the faith
(Luke 8:13, 1 Timothy 4:1, and Hebrews 3:12). In other settings, the word is used for
departing from iniquity (2 Timothy 2:19),
departing from ungodly men (1 Timothy 6:5), departing from the temple (Luke 2:27), departing from the body (2 Corinthians 12:8), and
departing from persons (Acts 12:10 and Luke 4:13).
This insight about the use and meaning of the word was certainly compelling, but the argument Mr. Ice presented that was most convincing was his revelation that
the first seven English translations of the Bible rendered the noun, apostasia, as either “departure” or “departing.”
They were as follows:
1.The Wycliffe Bible (1384)
2.The Tyndale Bible (1526)
3. The Coverdale Bible (1535)
4. The Cranmer Bible (1539)
5. The Great Bible (1540)
6. The Beeches Bible (1576)
7. The Geneva Bible (1608)
Mr. Ice also noted that the Bible used by the Western world from 400 AD to the 1500s — Jerome’s Latin translation known as
“The Vulgate” — rendered apostasia with the Latin word, discessio, which means “departure.” The first translation of the word to mean apostasy in an English bible did not occur until 1611 when the King James Version was issued.
So, why did the King James translators introduce a completely new rendering of the word as “falling away”? The best guess is that they were taking a stab at the false teachings of Catholicism.
One other point Mr. Ice made that I think is significant is that
Paul used a definite article with the word apostasia. The significance of this is emphasized by Daniel Davey in a thesis he wrote for the Detroit Baptist Theological Seminary:
Since the Greek language does not need an article to make the noun definite, it becomes clear that with the usage of the article, reference is being made to something in particular. In 2 Thessalonians 2:3 the word apostasia is prefaced by the definite article which means that
Paul is pointing to a particular type of departure clearly known to the Thessalonian church.
In light of this grammatical point, Tommy observed that “the use of the definite article would support the notion that Paul spoke of a clear, discernible notion.” And that notion he had already identified in verse 1 when he stated that he was writing about “our gathering together to Him [Jesus].” This interpretation also corresponds to the point that Paul makes in verses 6 and 7 where he states that
the man of lawlessness will not come until what “restrains” him “is taken out of the way.”
And what it is that restrains evil in the world today?
The Holy Spirit working through the Church. I think when the Church Departs, the Anti-Christ will be free to come to power.
I do not think this has anything to do with a Falling Away.
It is the Church Departing before the Anti-Christ is brought forth. The King James Bible changed the known understanding that had been around for 1500 some odd years in 1611.
The Church must depart before the Day of the Lord (God's Wrath) can come, and the Anti-Christ must also be revealed before the DOTL comes also. The Agreement (Dan. 9:27) and the Pre 70th week rapture both happen at the exact same time, because when Israel joins the E.U. that is The Agreement that kicks off the 70th week anger of God and the Fulness of the Gentiles is come in, the Pre 70th week rapture happens. Its all conjoined.
