Apparently, you take this hour literally, right? As in a literal 60 minutes, that within this same literal 60 minutes He will have first raised, judged, rewarded all the saved one at a time, possibly billions of people, and when that part is finished, He will then raise the lost, billions and billions of them, within this same literal hour, and before this same literal hour is finished, He will have also judged and sentenced all of lost one at a time. Then once this literal hour is finished it is then meaning the time of 1 Corintians 15:28. Not to mention, all of the lost have to already be dead first before any of the lost can rise from the dead.
If that's not accurate, explain this hour that is coming and how you are interpreting this hour?
So, you waste your time, as you so often do, trying to tell me what I believe, and THEN you ask me my understanding of it? It looks like you have my view all figured out, so why the need to ask? LOL. You are something else.
No, I don't take it to mean a literal hour, as in 60 minutes. You could have asked me that FIRST instead of wasting your time misrepresenting what I believe, but I understand that you just don't work that way. You insist on wasting time.
To me, Jesus was saying there is a singular time or event coming and once that time comes, then all of the dead will be resurrected. Some will end up inheriting eternal life and some will be eternally condemned. There is no indication there whatsoever that He was referring to a long period of time there during which all of the dead would be resurrected. Is that what "the hour is coming" means to you?
We don't know the day or hour of Jesus's coming, right? Would anyone try to say that the hour of His coming represents a long period of time the way you understand the coming hour when all of the dead are resurrected? Of course not. So, what is your reason for interpreting the hour that is coming when all the dead are raised to be a long period of time?
Daniel 12:1 And
at that time shall Michael stand up, the great prince which standeth for the children of thy people: and there shall be a time of trouble, such as never was since there was a nation even to that same time: and
at that time thy people shall be delivered, every one that shall be found written in the book. 2 And
many of them that sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to everlasting life, and some to shame and everlasting contempt. 2 also refers to the resurrection of both the saved and lost as being at the same time.
There is simply no indication whatsoever in Daniel 12:1-2 or in John 5:28-29 that the resurrection of the saved will be separated by a long time from the resurrection of the lost. It doesn't mean they have to be resurrected at the same exact moment, but the impression scripture gives is that they will be resurrected at generally the same time.
I can't make sense out of how God can raise both the saved and unsaved within the same hour, and then judge, reward, and sentence some, billions and billions of people, all within this same hour?
The dead are raised during that hour or time (however long it actually is). It doesn't say they have to be judged within that same hour. They will also be judged after that, but it doesn't indicate they are judged within that hour in the realm of time. As I've said before, I believe the judgment will occur in the realm of eternity because I believe Jesus will usher in eternity when He comes. Revelation 20:11 indicates that the judgment will not take place in heaven or on earth. It does not have to happen within the hour that is coming. It happens right after that hour comes and the dead are raised.
You can't argue and expect to be taken serious, that any of this is meaning outside of time, since things, such as minutes, hours, days, etc, could not possibly exist in the realm of outside of time.
You can't be expected to be taken seriously if you believe that billions of people will be judged within the realm of time. Can you even imagine how long that would take? It's ludicrous. And, again, Revelation 20:11 suggests strongly that it will not occur within the realm of time because it talks about heaven and earth fleeing from His presence when the judgment takes place, which means it won't occur on earth or in heaven and therefore not within the realm of time.
Do me a favor. Paraphrase John 5:28-29 for me so I can see exactly how you read it. What is your understanding of it? You are constantly telling others what things can't mean, but you don't bother to show what you think it does mean.