HERESY?

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Taken

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You are mistaken…

Read Act 17:30 again…

Jesus is A Human Man appointed by God… in which He will Judge the world… God proved this by raising Him from the Dead!

Your Gnostic view is not supported by scriptures

Jesus does not Change. God does not Change.
Don’t know about Gnosticism, however if they believe, Jesus does not Change, Gods does not Change....eh, I suppose a Gnostic and I would have something in common....

If you choose to WORSHIP A HUMAN MAN....that’s you...not me.

Human men are men out of the Earth.
Are you confused? Jesus did not come forth out of the Earth.
John 16:
[28] I came forth from the Father, and am come into the world: again.

You Changing the narrative of Jesus looking LIKE a man, being CALLED a man, TO: Jesus “BEING A Human man”.... IS NOT what the Words of God teaches.

Human men HAVE a Beginning;

Heb 13:
[8] Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever.

Mal 3:
[6] For I am the LORD, I change not; therefore ye sons of Jacob are not consumed.
 

Pierac

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Jesus does not Change. God does not Change.
Don’t know about Gnosticism, however if they believe, Jesus does not Change, Gods does not Change....eh, I suppose a Gnostic and I would have something in common....

If you choose to WORSHIP A HUMAN MAN....that’s you...not me.

Human men are men out of the Earth.
Are you confused? Jesus did not come forth out of the Earth.
John 16:
[28] I came forth from the Father, and am come into the world: again.

You Changing the narrative of Jesus looking LIKE a man, being CALLED a man, TO: Jesus “BEING A Human man”.... IS NOT what the Words of God teaches.

Human men HAVE a Beginning;

Heb 13:
[8] Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever.

Mal 3:
[6] For I am the LORD, I change not; therefore ye sons of Jacob are not consumed.

Then I suggest you take it up with the God of Jesus...

Rev 1:1 The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave Him

Joh 20:17
Jesus *said to her, "Stop clinging to Me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to My brethren and say to them, 'I ascend to My Father and your Father, and My God and your God.'"

Jesus calls himself "a man" (John 8:40) "But as it is, you are seeking to kill Me, a man who has told you the truth, which I heard from God; this Abraham did not do.
 

Taken

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Then I suggest you take it up with the God of Jesus...

I am not the one preaching the Creator and Maker IS the Created and Made.
That would be You.

John 1:
[3] All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.
 

Pierac

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I am not the one preaching the Creator and Maker IS the Created and Made.
That would be You.

John 1:
[3] All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

Concordant Literal Version Joh 1:3 All came into being through it (logos), and apart from it (logos) not even one thing came into being which has come into being."

Silly child... If you read the scriptures in the original language... you don't see the traditions of men like you do!

What do you know of the WORD (Logos) of God??

who testified to the word (logos) of God and to the testimony of Jesus Christ, even to all that he saw. (Rev 1:2)

"I also saw the souls of those who had been beheaded for their testimony to Jesus and for the word (logos) of God." (Rev 20:4)


Notice that they were beheaded for their testimony to Jesus AND for the logos
(Word) of God.

And
AND, conj.

And is a conjunction, connective or conjoining word. It signifies that a word or part of a sentence is to be added to what precedes. Thus, give me an apple and an orange; that is, give me an apple, add or give in addition to that, an orange. John and Peter and James rode to New York, that is, John rode to New York; add or further, Peter rode to New York; add James rode to New York.

Jesus and the word of God are not the same thing.

John 12:48
"He who rejects Me and does not receive My sayings, has one (God) who judges him; the word (logos) I spoke is what will judge him at the last day.

Again… Jesus spoke the Logos, as He is not the Logos!

Joh 12:49 "For I did not speak on My own initiative, but the Father Himself who sent Me has given Me a commandment as to what to say and what to speak.

(John 8:40) "But as it is, you are seeking to kill Me, a man who has told you the truth, which I heard from God; this Abraham did not do
 

Taken

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Jesus
and the word of God are not the same thing.

I’m not Greek, nor do I favor Greek Philosophers, including but not limited to
Heraclitus, and his teaching of logos, to satisfy his own Human Reasonings, “AS IF” Gods own Understanding is insufficient.

John 1
[1] In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
[2] The same was in the beginning with God.
(In the beginning was God, and God was with the Word, and God was the Word.)

God appearing in a flesh body HE prepared, for His created manKIND of thing to see, Does not Change God. Does not make God a created Human man!

Perhaps you should concern yourself with who and what you follow after...and promote.

Col 2:
[8] Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ.
 
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GodsGrace

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I believe IN the Garden God was establishing relationships For mankind.
Gen 1:26....a man
Gen 2:22....a woman
Gen 2:24....A woman God gave to man, called A wife
Gen 3:6 .....A man God gave to a woman, called A husband.
Gen 19:14...a condition of a wife and a husband called married.
Gen 34:9....the man husband, the woman wife, ajoined called marriage.

It sets the premise of God overseeing a joining of A man and A woman as A husband and A wife. Ajoined, by God called married, their union called A marriage.
(It’s a foreshadow of mankind becoming ajoined WITH God).

I do believe summoning Gods Presence for a man and a woman being joined together as husband and wife IS instituted by God for a marriage overseen and blessed by God.

I also believe, like all things God established as GOOD, pleasing to God:
Wicked men advocate, perpetuate, corrupt and tolerate and accept what is “NOT GOOD”.
Agreed.
I'll go a step further and say that this was the beginning of the "family" that God wanted to create for Himself.
 
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GodsGrace

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You are mistaken…

What saith the scriptures….


"The Lord your God will rise up for you a prophet like me from among you, from your own countrymen [literally, brothers]; you shall listen to him" (Deut.18:15). In this passage, Moses predicts that the coming Messiah would be a person "like me," raised up from "among" the people of Israel, and that God would not speak to the people directly, because they were afraid that if God spoke without a mediator they would die (V16). The coming "prophet" would be a man of whom it is said that God would "put his word in his mouth, and he shall speak to them all that I command him. And it shall come about whoever will not listen to My words which he shall speak in My name, I Myself will require it of him” (v. 18-19). To say that the Messiah is God Spirit and not a Man is to contradict the whole point of this prophecy.

Jesus proved this the be true…

Joh 8:40 "But as it is, you are seeking to kill Me, a man who has told you the truth, which I heard from God; this Abraham did not do.

Peter knew Jesus was a Human… a “Man”

Act 2:22 "Men of Israel, listen to these words: Jesus the Nazarene, a man attested to you by God with miracles and wonders and signs which God performed through Him in your midst, just as you yourselves know—

Paul knew the human Jesus… was created from the Spirit of God in the womb of Mary and died a “man” and was risen from the dead as a man! Our mediator to the one true God!

Gal 3:20 Now a mediator is not for one party only; whereas God is only one.

1Ti 2:5 For there is one God, and one mediator also between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,

Jesus is God’s chosen one!!!

Luk 9:35 Then a voice came out of the cloud, saying, "This is My Son, My Chosen One; listen to Him!"

Time to Repent from your false world view!!!

Act 17:30 "Therefore having overlooked the times of ignorance, God is now declaring to men that all people everywhere should repent, 31 because He has fixed a day in which He will judge the world in righteousness through a Man whom He has appointed, having furnished
proof to all men by raising Him from the dead."

Read Act 17:30 again…

Jesus is A Human Man appointed by God… in which He will Judge the world… God proved this by raising Him from the Dead!

Your Gnostic view is not supported by scriptures

Paul
This is what I'd like to know Pierac...

What do you think the N.T. is about?
Is it a fictional story?

Why did Luke write what he did?
Did the Angel Gabriel speak to Mary?
Did the Holy Spirit really overshadow her?
Did Jesus heal persons and forgive their sins?

Is it all just a story?

If so, why follow some man named Jesus?
Or maybe you DON'T follow Him and are here to convince us not to?
 
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Pierac

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I’m not Greek, nor do I favor Greek Philosophers, including but not limited to
Heraclitus, and his teaching of logos, to satisfy his own Human Reasonings, “AS IF” Gods own Understanding is insufficient.

John 1
[1] In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
[2] The same was in the beginning with God.
(In the beginning was God, and God was with the Word, and God was the Word.)

God appearing in a flesh body HE prepared, for His created manKIND of thing to see, Does not Change God. Does not make God a created Human man!

Perhaps you should concern yourself with who and what you follow after...and promote.

Col 2:
[8] Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ.

I have another train of thought for you think about. Is what you're reading into John 1 mostly church tradition? For almost 400 years, we have a read John 1 through the eyes of the Catholic Church. (reinforcing the Trinity). In the New Testament, “the Word” (Logos) happens to be of the masculine gender. Therefore, it's pronoun -"he" in our English translations - is a matter of interpretation, not translation. Did John write concerning “the word” that “he” was in the beginning with God or did he write concerning “the word” that “it” was in the beginning with God? As already stated, in the NT Greek the logos or word is masculine noun. It is okay in English to use “he” to refer back to his masculine noun if there is good contextual reason to do so. But is there good reason to make “the word” a “he” here?


It is a fact that all English translations from the Greek before the King James version of 1611 actually read this way: (notice Him and He are now “It”).

Tyndale 1534:
Joh 1:1 In the beginnynge was the worde and the worde was with God: and the worde was God. 2 The same was in the beginnynge with God. 3 All thinges were made by it and with out it was made nothinge that was made. 4 In it was lyfe and the lyfe was ye lyght of men
Cranmer 1539
John 1:1 IN the begynnynge was the worde and the worde was wyth God: and God was the worde. 2 The same was in the begynnyng with God. 3 All thynges were made by it and without it, was made nothynge that was made. 4 In it was lyfe and the lyfe was the lyght of men
Bishops 1568:
Joh 1:1 In the begynnyng was the worde, & the worde was with God: and that worde was God. 2 The same was in the begynnyng with God. 3 All thynges were made by it: and without it, was made nothyng that was made. 4 In it was lyfe, and the lyfe was the lyght of men,
Geneva 1587:
Joh 1:1 In the beginning was that Word, and that Word was with God, and that Word was God. 2 This same was in the beginning with God. 3 All things were made by it, and without it was made nothing that was made. 4 In it was life, and that life was the light of men.
And now our modern Concordant Literal Version:
Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the word, and the word was toward God, and God was the word. " 2 This was in the beginning toward God. 3 All came into being through it, and apart from it not even one thing came into being which has come into being." 4 In it was life, and the life was the light of men."

The word logos appears many, many more times in this very Gospel of John. And nowhere else do the translators capitalize it or use the masculine personal pronoun "he" to agree with it !

The rest of the New Testament is the same. Logos is variously translated as "statement" (Luke 20:20), “question" (Matt 21:24), "preaching" (1 Tim 5:17), "command" (Gal 5:14), "message" (Luke 4:32), "matter" (Acts 15:6), "reason" (Acts 10:29), so there is actually no reason to make John one say that "the Word" is the person Jesus himself, unless of course the translators are wanting to make a point to. In all cases logos is an “it.”

In the light of this background it is far better to read John's prologue to mean that in the beginning God had a plan, a dream, a grand vision for the world, a reason by which He brought all things into being. This word or plan was expressive of who he is.

"The Word" for John is an “it” not a "he." On one occasion, Jesus is given the name "the word of God" and this is in Revelations 19:13. This name has been given to him after his resurrection and ascension, but we will not find it before his birth. It is not until we come to verse 14 of John's
prologue that this logos becomes personal and becomes the son of God, Jesus. "And the Word became flesh." A great plan that God had in his heart from before the creation at last is fulfilled. Be very clear that it does not say that God became flesh.

There is even strong evidence suggesting that John himself reacted to those who were already misusing his gospel to mean that Jesus was himself the Word who had personally preexist the world. When later he wrote his introduction to 1 John, he clearly made the point that what was in
the beginning was not a “who” he put it this way: "What was from the beginning, what we have heard, what we have seen with our eyes, what we beheld and our hands handled, concerning the word of life…"

Logos - This word is translated in English as "Word". This word has an actual meaning which has been almost completely lost due to the Greek philosophical interpretation of John 1:1-3 & 14.
who testified to the word of God and to the testimony of Jesus Christ, even to all that he saw. (Rev 1:2)

"I also saw the souls of those who had been beheaded for their testimony to Jesus and for the word (logos) of God." (Rev 20:4)

Notice that they were beheaded for their testimony to Jesus AND for the logos of God.

Jesus and the word of God are not the same thing.


John 12:48 "He who rejects Me and does not receive My sayings, has one (God) who judges him; the word ( logos ) I spoke is what will judge him at the last day.
Again… Jesus spoke the Logos, as He is not the Logos!

Act 17:30 "Therefore having overlooked the times of ignorance, God is now declaring to men that all people everywhere should repent, 31 because He ( God) has fixed a day in which He will judge the world in righteousness through a Man whom He has appointed, having furnished proof to all men by raising Him from the dead."


Word of God in this verse means God's plan of salvation for us (NAB), i.e. the kingdom
of God message. So what does "logos" mean?

Logos - 1. Denotes an internal reasoning process, plan, or intention, as well as an external word. 2. The expression of thought. As embodying a conception or idea (New American Bible (footnote) & Vine’s Expository Dictionary).

According to Liddell and Scott Greek Lexicon, it also means:

Logos - the inward thought which is expressed in the spoken word.

I will give you a brief paraphrase of John 1:1-3 using the definitions for "logos:"

"In the beginning was God's plan, will, or idea for our salvation. It was present in his mind, and God's plan or will possessed all the attributes of God."

The very Trinitarian Roman Catholic New American Bible has this comment on this verse:

"Lack of a definite article with "God" in Greek signifies predication rather than identification."

Predication - to affirm as a quality or attribute (Webster's Dictionary).

So how does the Word (logos) become flesh in John 1:14? Let me use an example which most of us can relate to. We are all familiar with the expression, "was this baby planned?" Let's say it was planned. You and your wife had a plan to have a baby. You had a logos, a plan. Your plan (logos) became flesh the day that your baby was born. In the same way, God's plan of salvation for us became a reality, became flesh, when Jesus was born. This verse is probably one of the biggest culprits in the creation of the trinity.

Hope this helps
Paul
 

Pierac

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This is what I'd like to know Pierac...

What do you think the N.T. is about?
Is it a fictional story?

Why did Luke write what he did?
Did the Angel Gabriel speak to Mary?
Did the Holy Spirit really overshadow her?
Did Jesus heal persons and forgive their sins?


Is it all just a story?

If so, why follow some man named Jesus?
Or maybe you DON'T follow Him and are here to convince us not to?

You speak as a child... What do you know of what Gabriel said to Mary? You read the words through the eyes of your Church! At the very conception of Jesus, Gabriel told you that what you refuse to believe... Jesus is being created in the womb and therefore can be called....

NASB Luk 1:35 The angel answered and said to her, "The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; and for that reason the holy Child shall be called the Son of God.

What reason? That Jesus already existed? Not according to Gabriel... You post scripture as if you can make it say what you have been told to believe.
Know this! Jesus is My KING in the coming Kingdom, and Jesus is called the Son of God because Jesus was created in the womb of Mary by the Spirit of God. The Man Jesus is my mediator between me and the God of Jesus.

1Ti 2:5 For there is one God, and one mediator also between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,

Did Jesus heal people or did God heal people through Jesus...? let's ask Peter whom spent many years with Jesus

Act 2:22 "Men of Israel, listen to these words: Jesus the Nazarene, a man attested to you by God with miracles and wonders and signs which God performed through Him in your midst, just as you yourselves know--

So according to Peter, who did the "miracles and wonders and signs"

1. Jesus
2. God through Jesus

If you did not answer 2... you need to go back and read Act 2:22... Your Church tradition is getting in your way of the truth!

Did Jesus forgive Sins? What saith the scriptures....

When Jesus pronounced the man forgiven/healed, (Mark 2:5) the Pharisees say that Jesus is "blaspheming" because he is claiming to be God. But a little careful attention to detail will show that Jesus is not claiming deity. He is rather claiming "authority." He says, "But that you may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins…" (v.10). The parallel account in Matthew's report is that once the people saw Jesus healed a paralytic, "they were filled with awe, and glorified God, who had given such authority to men" ( Matt 9:8). We note that Jesus is claiming to be "the Son of Man," that is, the human Messiah, with a God given right to pronounce forgiveness. Not too much later Jesus invested other men-his apostles-with the same authority to forgive sins: "If you forgive the sins of any, their sins have been forgiven them; he to retain the sins of any, they have been retained" (John 20:23). If only God can forgive sins, then God and Jesus and the apostles are all God! Besides, there is no teaching anywhere in the Bible that says only God can forgive. Even Christians are commanded to forgive each other sin (Eph. 4:32; Col. 3:13). The fact that the Pharisees say that only God can forgive sins does not make this an established Biblical doctrine. The Pharisees often had wrong doctrine and were often corrected by our Lord Jesus. This was one such occasion.

How can you ask me if it's all just a Story.... ? When you don't even understand the scriptures you post.
Paul
 

Taken

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@Pierac ~

I’m not Catholic. I know Catholics, I know what ‘they’ say applies to them, as “Catholics”, what they believe, what they do and do not do. And read on this forum utter nonsense some of them teach and preach.

I learn knowledge from Scriptures. I appeal to God for understanding of His Word in Scripture He instituted and approved.

Mankind was “created” and “made”.....<—- two different things.
The body, (form, flesh & bones) was “created” from the elements of the Earth, and handy, since the Earth is mans Habitat, and the elements IN the Earth sustain our body’s.

Then after the body, was ‘created’ the body was “made”... in Gods likeness...

Gen 1:
[26] And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth.

US? OUR? OUR?

Us, our, our, IS a plural reference....to ONE God.
The Making of ONE man....with a plural LIKENESS...

* THAT Notifies you, there is more to the ONE God, and more to ONE man, than simply a body of Flesh & Bones.

* IF you continue following the knowledge...you can chart what APPLIES to ONE man...(something you CAN SEE and comprehend)....and Learn much ABOUT the ONE Unseen God.

Men have BODY’s...Flesh, bones, organs, tissue, muscle, etc. that all work together for the body to function. The body once brought into an individual living state (born, no longer dependent on another human).... it has it’s OWN LIFE....called BLOOD....hum...God has His OWN LIFE.

Gods blows his breath into the nostrils of a man....and what is that man then?
A living soul. What is that soul CALLED? It is called by the NAME of that body. A Name given that body by father/mother.
What did that breath of life soul do for that Individual?
...eyes that could not see.....can now see.
...ears that could not hear....can now hear.
...nose that could not smell...can now smell.
...tongue that could not taste...can now taste.
...flesh that could not feel touch...can now feel touch.
...mind that could not think..........can now think and process sight, hearing, smelling, tasting, touching.

And WHO exactly does that soul BELONG TO? God.
Ezek 18:
[4] Behold, all souls are mine; as the soul of the father, so also the soul of the son is mine: the soul that sinneth, it shall die.

What broadly IS GOD?
John 4:
[24] God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth.

Any doubt the God desires His created and made men to WORSHIP HIM?
John 4:
[24] God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth.

IS man A spirit? No.
Does man HAVE A spirit? Yes.
Where is the spirit of a man? IN him.
Where specifically? IN his heart. (The very organ that keeps the mans LIFE, ie BLOOD, pumping/ moving/ sustaining the body’s LIFE)
* All mens body’s shall die. God requires it. (Gen. 9:5)

1 Cor 2:
[11] For what man knoweth the things of a man, save the spirit of man which is in him? even so the things of God knoweth no man, but the Spirit of God.

Here you are notified, your spirit...KNOWS things.
How do you KNOW your spirit, that KNOWS things, IS IN YOUR HEART?

Rom 10:
[8] But what saith it? The word is nigh thee, even in thy mouth, and in thy heart: that is, the word of faith, which we preach;
[9] That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.

John 4:
[24] God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth.

The spirit of man is in his heart, the truth of man is in his spirit, in his heart.
WHEN a man is worshiping God, or accepting Gods offering of Salvation, the mans worshiping or confession of (heartful belief)....must be the mans TRUE heartful Confession............OPPOSED to what “other” option? Confession of the mind.....WHY not the MIND?

Rom 8:
[7] Because the carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be.

ONE man, clearly has A BODY, A SOUL, A SPIRIT....
....men CAN SEE another mans BODY.
....men CAN NOT SEE another mans SOUL or SPIRIT.
ONE God, clearly IS SPIRIT, HAS A SOUL.......and HIS BODY?
...men CAN NOT SEE GODS SPIRIT.
...men CAN NOT SEE GODS SOUL.
...men CAN NOT SEE GODS BODY.

Head scratcher...what does Gods BODY LOOK LIKE?
WELL....CAN the ALL supreme powerful God, APPEAR in a FORM of His choosing, for mankind to SEE something, to KNOW they are IN THE Presence of God? Yes.

LIKE YOU, Gods own word is .... oh ya...IN HIS MOUTH.
Isa 55:
[11] So shall my word be that goeth forth out of my mouth: it shall not return unto me void, but it shall accomplish that which I please, and it shall prosper in the thing whereto I sent it.

Do you know the THING, where to God SENT His word? Virgin womb of a woman betrothed to a man OF THE HOUSE OF DAVID!
(Luke 1:27)
Importance of the HOUSE OF DAVID? Only a LEGAL heir of HOUSE of DAVID can sit on king David’s Everlasting throne of king David’s Everlasting kingdom.)
(2 Samuel 7:16)
Do you know where that BODY came from? (From God IN Heaven).
Heb 10:
[5] Wherefore when he cometh into the world, he saith, Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not, but a body hast Thou prepared me:
Heb 1:
[3] Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high;

Remember what God SENT forth out of HIS mouth, HIS word, in the LIKENESS as a man...
His WORD IS HE, sent in a body God prepared, for men to SEE and HEAR Him.

John 1:
[1] In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
John 8:
[42] Jesus said unto them, If God were your Father, ye would love me: for I proceeded forth and came from God; neither came I of myself, but he sent me.
John 16:
[28] I came forth from the Father, and am come into the world: again, I leave the world, and go to the Father.
[30] Now are we sure that thou knowest all things, and needest not that any man should ask thee: by this we believe that thou camest forth from God.
John 10:
[30] I and my Father are one.

1 Thes 5:
[23] And the very God of peace sanctify you wholly; and I pray God your whole spirit and soul and body be preserved blameless unto the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.

Can’t say for you....but the wholeness of me; IS:
ONE man.....am a body, have a soul, have a spirit
IN my spirit is my truth.

Being in the likeness of God......
I have no issue that God is SPIRIT, has a SOUL, has a BODY.
Gods SPIRIT IS His light and His Glory and His Supreme Power.
Gods Power IS CALLED “Christ”...(1 Cor 1:24) called Jesus..called the Word of God, called the begotten Son of God, who came forth out from God, manifested in a body God prepared, to SEEK the lost of ISRAEL, reconcile them BACK unto God, AND provide us with TEACHER (PAUL) learned through the Spirit of God, to SEEK the GENTILES, that they may BECOME ALSO ‘WITH” the Lord God Almighty.

I have no confusion of with all the scriptures identifying Jesus the Christ, as God in the FLESH, for mens eyes to see, and mens ears to heart, the Great Truths of God and receive unto every willing mans Heart, the great Gift of Salvation God has Offered mankind....
Forgiveness for having HAD unbelief.
Forgiveness for corrupting their soul.
Restoration of their soul.
Quickening of their spirit.
Promise of resurrecting their corrupt body, into a glorified uncorruptable body.

WE, US, OUR....restored in the likeness of .... HIM, they, our, us....
The Great Lord (Son) God (Father) Spirt (Almighty Power)

This is brief. Many more Scriptures exclusively use terms ... regarding Jesus, regarding Christ, that ONLY Apply to the ONE God.

Glory to God,
Taken
 
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Enoch111

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Or maybe you DON'T follow Him and are here to convince us not to?
Pierac is another one come here to sow seeds of spiritual confusion while making lengthy and silly posts. Here's an example of silliness: Is what you're reading into John 1 mostly church tradition? For almost 400 years, we have a read John 1 through the eyes of the Catholic Church.

Why would any Christian need to resort to the Catholic Church when the Bible is freely available and every Bible says the same thing? So the real issue is "Does John 1:1 say that Jesus (who is the Word manifest in the flesh) is GOD (THEOS)." Absolutely.

So you have only two options: (a) believe God and acknowledge that Jesus is God the Word or (b) disbelieve God and believe Satan who says that Jesus is not God .
 

Pierac

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Pierac is another one come here to sow seeds of spiritual confusion while making lengthy and silly posts. Here's an example of silliness: Is what you're reading into John 1 mostly church tradition? For almost 400 years, we have a read John 1 through the eyes of the Catholic Church.

Why would any Christian need to resort to the Catholic Church when the Bible is freely available and every Bible says the same thing? So the real issue is "Does John 1:1 say that Jesus (who is the Word manifest in the flesh) is GOD (THEOS)." Absolutely.

So you have only two options: (a) believe God and acknowledge that Jesus is God the Word or (b) disbelieve God and believe Satan who says that Jesus is not God .

Because the Catholic Church influenced the Bible you read... silly Child!

How can scholars change what you read and believe... I already showed you.


Tyndale 1534:
Joh 1:1 In the beginnynge was the worde and the worde was with God: and the worde was God. 2 The same was in the beginnynge with God. 3 All thinges were made by it and with out it was made nothinge that was made. 4 In it was lyfe and the lyfe was ye lyght of men
Cranmer 1539
John 1:1 IN the begynnynge was the worde and the worde was wyth God: and God was the worde. 2 The same was in the begynnyng with God. 3 All thynges were made by it and without it, was made nothynge that was made. 4 In it was lyfe and the lyfe was the lyght of men
Bishops 1568:
Joh 1:1 In the begynnyng was the worde, & the worde was with God: and that worde was God. 2 The same was in the begynnyng with God. 3 All thynges were made by it: and without it, was made nothyng that was made. 4 In it was lyfe, and the lyfe was the lyght of men,
Geneva 1587:
Joh 1:1 In the beginning was that Word, and that Word was with God, and that Word was God. 2 This same was in the beginning with God. 3 All things were made by it, and without it was made nothing that was made. 4 In it was life, and that life was the light of men.

Now... notice what bias has been added to your Bible!!!

KJV 1611: Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, & the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 The same was in the beginning with God.
3 All things were made by him, and without him was not any thing made that was made.

The word logos appears many, many more times in this very Gospel of John. And nowhere else do the translators capitalize it or use the masculine personal pronoun "he" to agree with it ! The rest of the New Testament is the same. Logos is variously translated as "statement" (Luke 20:20), “question" (Matt 21:24), "preaching" (1 Tim 5:17), "command" (Gal 5:14), "message" (Luke 4:32), "matter" (Acts 15:6), "reason" (Acts 10:29), so there is actually no reason to make John one say that "the Word" is the person Jesus himself, unless of course the translators are wanting to make a point to. In all cases logos is an “it.”
 

GodsGrace

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Because the Catholic Church influenced the Bible you read... silly Child!

How can scholars change what you read and believe... I already showed you.


Tyndale 1534:
Joh 1:1 In the beginnynge was the worde and the worde was with God: and the worde was God. 2 The same was in the beginnynge with God. 3 All thinges were made by it and with out it was made nothinge that was made. 4 In it was lyfe and the lyfe was ye lyght of men
Cranmer 1539
John 1:1 IN the begynnynge was the worde and the worde was wyth God: and God was the worde. 2 The same was in the begynnyng with God. 3 All thynges were made by it and without it, was made nothynge that was made. 4 In it was lyfe and the lyfe was the lyght of men
Bishops 1568:
Joh 1:1 In the begynnyng was the worde, & the worde was with God: and that worde was God. 2 The same was in the begynnyng with God. 3 All thynges were made by it: and without it, was made nothyng that was made. 4 In it was lyfe, and the lyfe was the lyght of men,
Geneva 1587:
Joh 1:1 In the beginning was that Word, and that Word was with God, and that Word was God. 2 This same was in the beginning with God. 3 All things were made by it, and without it was made nothing that was made. 4 In it was life, and that life was the light of men.

Now... notice what bias has been added to your Bible!!!

KJV 1611: Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, & the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 The same was in the beginning with God.
3 All things were made by him, and without him was not any thing made that was made.

The word logos appears many, many more times in this very Gospel of John. And nowhere else do the translators capitalize it or use the masculine personal pronoun "he" to agree with it ! The rest of the New Testament is the same. Logos is variously translated as "statement" (Luke 20:20), “question" (Matt 21:24), "preaching" (1 Tim 5:17), "command" (Gal 5:14), "message" (Luke 4:32), "matter" (Acts 15:6), "reason" (Acts 10:29), so there is actually no reason to make John one say that "the Word" is the person Jesus himself, unless of course the translators are wanting to make a point to. In all cases logos is an “it.”
Logos is an IT.
You're right about this.

What you can't seem to grasp is that the IT became a HE.

If you can't accept this, you will never understand the Trinity.

Not that I think you want to...
 

GodsGrace

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Pierac is another one come here to sow seeds of spiritual confusion while making lengthy and silly posts. Here's an example of silliness: Is what you're reading into John 1 mostly church tradition? For almost 400 years, we have a read John 1 through the eyes of the Catholic Church.

Why would any Christian need to resort to the Catholic Church when the Bible is freely available and every Bible says the same thing? So the real issue is "Does John 1:1 say that Jesus (who is the Word manifest in the flesh) is GOD (THEOS)." Absolutely.

So you have only two options: (a) believe God and acknowledge that Jesus is God the Word or (b) disbelieve God and believe Satan who says that Jesus is not God .
I just don't even understand what persons such as the other poster are really doing here.

A person could believe what he wants to, but why go to such extremes to try and convince Christians that they're wrong about Jesus?

Maybe they just need to convince themselves.
 

Enoch111

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A person could believe what he wants to, but why go to such extremes to try and convince Christians that they're wrong about Jesus?
What we are seeing today is a massive SATANIC CAMPAIGN to undermine Gospel truth and Bible truth.

You will see this on all "Christian" forums, "Christian" book stores, and "Christian" radio and TV broadcasts. Not to mention many "Christian" churches across the world.

But God has given Christians (1) the Word of God, which is the Sword of the Spirit and (2) the Holy Spirit, who is the Divine Teacher, and who leads us into all truth.

The key doctrine of the Bible is "the doctrine of Christ". This includes His full deity (that He is God) and also His full sinless humanity. Plus His perfect life, death, burial, and resurrection -- the redemptive work of Christ. If Jesus was not God He could not possibly be the Redeemer and Savior of the world.

And without controversy
great is the mystery of godliness:
God was manifest in the flesh,
justified in the Spirit,
seen of angels,
preached unto the Gentiles,
believed on in the world,
received up into glory.

(1 Timothy 3:16 KJV only)