Getting to the heart of the Amil confusion

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ewq1938

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While John's reference to the beast and the mark pertains to a specific group of people, I don't think he intended to limit the timeframe to that particular period. Perhaps, but I don't believe that was his primary aim.


Yes.

There are not two stages of the first resurrection ie: those who shall rise first. All the dead in Christ will rise at the same exact time. Revelation 20 simply focuses on one group like if there were a million people in a dark room and you shined a flashlight at a group of around a thousand. The others are still there. The light just isn't being shown at them at that time.

1Th 4:16 For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first:

All the dead in Christ will resurrect at the same time. Revelation 20 is only shining a light on one specific group but everyone is actually resurrecting at the same time the beheaded saints are.
 
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ewq1938

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As to this hit and run allegation. In my mind I am arguing 2 + 2 = 4. Amils are arguing it equals 5.

And there is a saying, "I'm going to go ahead and take 5" meaning to take a break but it is a break time of an unknown length so 5 can really mean 900, or 9000 or even more.
 

Timtofly

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Here's my thinking on it, right or wrong. It obviously can't be involving what is recorded in Revelation 20 pertaining to the first resurrection if John hadn't even seen these visions yet. Duh! Right? IOW, they couldn't be trying to confuse anyone about Revelation 20 if Revelation 20 didn't even exist yet. Therefore, we can rule that out. What I'm thinking then, is this.

Matthew 27:51 And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom; and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent;
52 And the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints which slept arose,
53 And came out of the graves after his resurrection, and went into the holy city, and appeared unto many.


This resurrection event included Christ rising from the dead and also included many bodies of the saints rising from the dead. This is the resurrection event they are saying is in the past. The err is not with that since they would be correct that this resurrection event was in the past. The err would be that they were teaching no other bodily resurrection needs to take place in the future as well since it already took place in the past, thus fulfilled entirely.

Whether I'm right or wrong that's what tends to make the most sense to me. Therefore, assuming I might be right, one can't apply 2 Timothy 2:18 to anyone in our day and time except for maybe full Preterists. Certainly not to Amils, since Amils, regardless how they are interpreting Revelation 20:4-6, keeping in mind also, that when 2 Timothy 2:18 is meaning Revelation 20 didn't even exist yet, Amils are not even remotely insisting there is not a bodily resurrection event in the future, because it was already entirely fulfilled in the past when Christ and when the many bodies of saints rose, therefore, no one needs to also bodily rise in the future because everyone that was to rise bodily already rose 2000 years ago.
Amil do declare that Revelation 20:4-6 is in the past by the same logic you claim it has not happened yet. That being the actual timing of Revelation 20.

Sure, they do not deny a future resurrection. They are not full preterist, just messed up partial preterist denying a resurrection that has already happened.
 

WPM

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As to this hit and run allegation. In my mind I am arguing 2 + 2 = 4. Amils are arguing it equals 5. Therefore, in my mind I'm already holding the trump card that can't be trumped. Since I'm arguing 2 + 2 = 4, a million arguments against that is not going to change the fact that it equals 4. You need to prove 2 + 2 does not equal 4. IOW, you need to prove how your 2 + 2 = 5 argument trumps my 2 + 2 = 4 argument and why I should even consider your argument/s. BTW, I know you know that 2 + 2 = 4. But that is the beside the point.

This is all you have now - faulty opinions and a math that adds 2+2 that equals 22.
 
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Timtofly

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That’s not correct, Paul didn’t disagree with a resurrection taking place, only that “the resurrection” was past already. Whatever resurrection Hymenaeus and Philetus were talking about was not in question, it was only that that resurrection was past already. Therefore Paul seems to be in agreement that a resurrection did already take place, it just wasn’t the resurrection that Hymenaeus and Philetus were talking about.
We will never know which resurrection they were referring to then. No one should ever use this verse to prove any current doctrine, because no one even knows what resurrection was being addressed.

It is wrong to deny the first resurrection is a physical resurrection. To say the first resurrection is anything other than physical, for any human being, is error.
 

Timtofly

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Those who make the claim that the First Resurrection is not in Christ's rising first, are contradicting God's Word. God tells us point blank that Christ "IS" THEE First Resurrection. He who hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit says unto the churches, receive it as authoritative.

Acts 26:23
  • "That Christ should suffer, and that he should be the First Resurrection from the dead, and should shew light unto the people, and to the Gentiles."
Now can you find in the OT in the writings of Moses, and the prophets that backs up your interpretation of "Christ, thee first resurrection"?
 

Timtofly

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Scripture teaches that Christ's resurrection was the first resurrection. We all agree that is past, but this does NOT mean we are saying that everyone who will have part in the first resurrection (Christ's resurrection) already had part in it in the past.

Also, you believe that the first resurrection refers to the bodily resurrection of the dead in Christ. You falsely and deceptively try to make people believe that we claim that the bodily resurrection of the dead in Christ happened in the past and we do NOT believe that! We believe it will happen when Jesus comes again in the FUTURE.
No, you falsely believe that Jesus is the only first resurrection period. This has nothing to do with 2 Timothy 2:18.

You are wrong to say the physical resurrection found in Matthew 27 is not the first resurrection and that those in Revelation 20:4 are not physically resurrected. Both those in the OT were physically resurrected out of Abraham's bosom permanently, as the first resurrection, and those beheaded in Revelation 20, receiving the same first/physical resurrection. They ascended into heaven, physically with Christ on Sunday morning, just after Jesus talked to Mary. Those beheaded will live on the earth for the next thousand years. Neither group face the second death.

The OT redeemed are not waiting for a first / physical resurrection. No one is waiting, as all currently in Paradise have the 2 Corinthians 5:1 physical body from God.
 

Timtofly

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Right. The first resurrection is a direct and immediate result of having been born again of the Spirit.
So those in Revelation 20:4, were not born again until years, months, weeks, or days after they were physically beheaded. People are beheaded instead of receiving the mark, 42 months prior to this resurrection mentioned. Not all at the same time, nor was it a constant slaughter every minute for 42 months. Over these 42 months, a few people, or many people were beheaded. Then after Satan is bound they stand before thrones and are judged. Then they receive the second birth (born of the Spirit) and the first resurrection. When do they ever live again, as you claim they are still physically dead for the entire 1,000 years. You deny they have a physical body during those thousand years. What is the point of living again, if one is not living again? In other words a thousand years later no one lives again, either, as that would not be living again physically just like not living again physically a thousand years ago.

Those a thousand years later would receive the second birth (born of the Spirit) the first resurrection, only a thousand years later.
 

jeffweeder

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I’ve heard from other Amil followers that say they take part spiritually in Jesus’ resurrection.
Only those who believe Jesus partake spiritually. They are born again of the Spirit and have already passed from death to life. Jesus got the victory over death for us. We are more than conquerers then, thanks to Jesus resurrection.


Jn 5
24 “I assure you and most solemnly say to you, the person who hears My word [the one who heeds My message], and believes and trusts in Him who sent Me, has (possesses now) eternal life [that is, eternal life actually begins—the believer is transformed], and does not come into judgment and condemnation, but has passed [over] from death into life.

25 I assure you and most solemnly say to you, a time is coming and is [here] now, when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God, and those who hear it will live


But to clarify I asked, so what resurrection do you believe the dead in Christ are a part of, the first or second resurrection?
Both. Ones Spiritual and the other Bodily. Cannot have that without the other.


 

Timtofly

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Goodness gracious. Our "first resurrection" ensures our future resurrection to eternal life (as opposed to the resurrection unto judgment), wherein our spirits will be reunited with our physical body.
The first resurrection is the only physical resurrection you will ever have. Stop hijacking biblical terms.

Revelation 20 is not saying there is a hierarchy of physical resurrections where the beheaded are more important than those a thousand years later. Revelation 20 is not even saying there is a first resurrection and later a second resurrection. The only resurrection mentioned is a physical resurrection, and the physical resurrection is called the first resurrection. A physical resurrection will happen before and after the thousand years. It is still a first resurrection at the beginning and at the end of the thousand years, because every physical resurrection is a first resurrection.

If one is blessed with a physical resurrection at any point in the last 6,000 years, they will not face the second death nor placed into the LOF. But that resurrection is physical and is the one and only first resurrection. Jesus experienced a physical resurrection and that was a first resurrection. Lazarus experienced a physical resurrection and that was a first resurrection. He never physically died again, but is physically in Paradise. His soul never left a physical body ever again at that point, when Jesus called that new physical body out of the tomb.

Lazarus was the only one who had a first resurrection in the NT. Those others were raised from the dead, but did not come out of their graves. There was a difference. Many came back into the same body after a couple of hours. Lazarus did not. Lazarus had been dead for 4 days. That body had decayed to the point, that caused physical death. Just coming back without a resurrection would necessitate a changed or different body. Lazarus was the primary, protos, first and only example of the redemption of the physical body out of death into eternal life. To physically die again, would mean eternal life is a failure and does not work, yet many claim the only example died again, and any future first/physical resurrection would be subject to just dying again. Except we have the point John gave us in Revelation 20, that there is a physical resurrection where no one ever dies again. But that does not make a good example for Amil who deny a future millennial kingdom to begin with. Most deny all the OT redeemed have been physically enjoying Paradise for the last 2 millennia. All who are in Paradise, who have arrived even today, this post was made have experienced the first resurrection, because they have a physical permanent incorruptible body. The resurrection was not in the past, never to happen again, nor in the future, never to be an ongoing event.

John explains that only those beheaded needed to stand in judgment to experience the first resurrection. All others throughout the book already had a physical body, and did not have to wait like those beheaded had to wait. That is why John said the rest of the dead still had to wait another thousand years. Those in sheol and death were still physically dead. Not the redeemed like the 144k who never even physically died, but were changed out of Adam's dead corruptible flesh into God's permanent incorruptible physical body.

Even then, the soul leaving the body of death for a body of eternal life, even being changed can be considered the first resurrection, because it deals with the physical body. So calling the first resurrection merely spiritual is missing the whole point of the physical being changed.
 

Stewardofthemystery

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Only those who believe Jesus partake spiritually.
That is called being born again, it in no way replaces the definition of the first resurrection as is mentioned in Rev. 20:4-6.

It is also written that those who believe will speak the Truth by the Holy Spirit. Amils are not speaking the Truth by the Holy Spirit.

John 7:38
He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water.
Both. Ones Spiritual and the other Bodily. Cannot have that without the other.
Again being born again is not the first resurrection as is defined in Rev. 20:4-6. Amils are trying redefine the meaning of the first resurrection in order to promote their own false doctrine. Those who are of God’s Holy Spirit will speak the Truth by the Living waters.
 
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Timtofly

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For one thing, I don't take the sheep and goats judgment to be meaning the great white throne judgment to begin with. Anyone paying attention to the context leading up this judgment, and has even minimal discernment, should easily note that the context was involving profitable and unprofitable servants of His.

I can't speak for anyone else, but IMO context is absolutely important if one is expected to interpret something correctly. In context the goats are meaning the unprofitable servants in the body of Christ. IOW, they equal not once saved always saved(NOSAS) .

Therefore, per my POV your point is moot.

But I will say this though, and I expect even Premils are likely going to disagree with some of this, but the fact Daniel 12:2 records a resurrection event where it gives the impression that many rather than every single one of them, that sleep in the dust of the ground, shall rise at the time, and that it says some to everlasting contempt, I take that to maybe mean the unprofitable servants of His during His ascension since some of them would already be dead when He returns.

IOW, He raises these as well except these are not meaning every single lost person since the beginning of time, these are only meaning His unprofitable servants during the church era during His ascension, thus the goats per the sheep and goats judgment.

Not to mention, Revelation 20:11-15 does not even remotely depict, even if not meaning in the literal sense, which it likely isn't, yet that is beside the point, a dividing up of the ones standing before Him, where some are standing on His right side, the others on his left side.
The sheep and goat judgment in Matthew 25 has nothing to do with physically dead people in their tombs. This judgment is for people alive on the earth at the point of the Second Coming, just after the church has been removed. This judgment begins after the 7th Seal is opened. These are not the church at all, good or bad. This is the time of Jacob's trouble and deals only with Israel which is still scattered across the earth, even after the 5th and 6th Seal already were opened. The 144k are sealed prior to this sheep and goat judgment. The sheep are a one third remnant of Israel and the goats are the majority of Jacob being tossed into the LOF. That is why Jacob faces the worse tribulation ever in their history. While God has "killed Israel" off several times in history leaving only a remnant, this time consists of Jacob actually face to face with God in judgment and God directly telling them, they will never be part of a redeemed Israel.

This has nothing to do with some of the church being saved or not saved. The ten virgin parable is about the fact that some of Israel are part of the church, and others are not. Not that some church members are not redeemed. There will be thousands of "church members" left on earth, who will then be deceived by Satan and burned up as the tares during the 7 Thunders.

None of "the dead" will be alive on the earth during the Millennium. "The dead" will be changed as the church is raptured in the 5th Seal. "The dead" will be redeemed as Sheep changed out of Adam's dead corruptible flesh into God's permanent incorruptible physical body consisting of Israel per Paul in Romans 11:25-27

"blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in. And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob:
For this is my covenant unto them, when I shall take away their sins."

These are the sheep from Matthew 25. Adam's dead corruptible flesh will be removed along with sin and death. The frst resurrection is still pertinent, but without tasting death. The dead at the end of the millennium are only those physically dead, but not all will receive the first resurrection. Most will be tossed into the LOF. There will be some given eternal life, which involves both the first resurrection and the second birth at that point. Their names remain in the Lamb's book of life, and are not removed. Some may call that a second chance. But only God knows that fact, although none will be without excuse. The problem is that there will be some redeemed, even at that point, because that is what Daniel wrote. Not that Daniel wrote: all the redeemed have to wait until the GWT Judgment event. The New Testament cleared up the mystery, that all the OT redeemed, waiting as souls in Abraham's bosom, were given the first resurrection, and have been physically alive in Paradise since the Cross. The church will be glorified at the 5th Seal, and wait in Paradise during the Day of the Lord. But those beheaded live physically on the earth for the last thousand years. And only after the Day of the Lord will the rest of the dead stand in Judgment after waiting for thousands of years since from before the Flood.
 

TribulationSigns

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Again being born again is not the first resurrection as is defined in Rev. 20:4-6.

Yes it does!

Amils are trying redefine the meaning of the first resurrection in order to promote their own false doctrine.

Not at all. It's you who are denying the Scripture. You just do not get it on what Revelation 20:4-6 actually talks about.

Those who are of God’s Holy Spirit will speak the Truth by the Living waters.

Those filled with the living Water have the first resurrection in Christ.. after Christ has glorified. :-)

John 7:38-39
  • "He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water.
  • (But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.)"
Once Jesus was glorified and sent the Holy Spirit of revelation, only then did they realize that salvation is REVEALED to go to the nations. Only then was the Holy Spirit poured out at Pentecost to this end revealed in them speaking in tongues (the languages of all the other nations). Just because you don't get it doesn't mean that it is not true. The fact is, I have no satisfactory or acceptable answer for you. ..to others, perhaps.
 
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Stewardofthemystery

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Those filled with the living Water have the first resurrection in Christ.. after Christ has glorified. :-)
The well spring of Life (rivers of living waters) was given to some of God’s elect even before Jesus was crucified and resurrected. So once again, you are in error.

John 7:38
He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of livingwater.

Proverbs 10:11
The mouth of a righteous man is a well of life: but violence covereth the mouth of the wicked.

Proverbs 16:22
Understanding is a wellspring of life unto him that hath it: but the instruction of fools is folly.
 

TribulationSigns

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The well spring of Life (rivers of living waters) was given to some of God’s elect even before Jesus was crucified and resurrected. So once again, you are in error.

Very unlikely. I did not deny that the Holy Spirit (living water) did go to the Old Testament!

Zec 14:8-9
(8) And it shall be in that day, that living waters shall go out from Jerusalem; half of them toward the former sea, and half of them toward the hinder sea: in summer and in winter shall it be.
(9) And the LORD shall be king over all the earth: in that day shall there be one LORD, and his name one.

It occurred at the Cross when Christ went to the Cross. Half of the living water went to the former sea (Saints of the old testament) and Hinder sea (Saints of the New Testament).

John 7:38
He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of livingwater.

So..?
Proverbs 10:11
The mouth of a righteous man is a well of life: but violence covereth the mouth of the wicked.

So...?
Proverbs 16:22
Understanding is a wellspring of life unto him that hath it: but the instruction of fools is folly.

So...?

The Holy Spirit did exist in the Old Testament and worked through the Saints of the Old Testament with faith and took part of the First Resurrection in Christ pointing to the Cross. What is your point?

Isa 63:10-11
(10) But they rebelled, and vexed his holy Spirit: therefore he was turned to be their enemy, and he fought against them.
(11) Then he remembered the days of old, Moses, and his people, saying, Where is he that brought them up out of the sea with the shepherd of his flock? where is he that put his holy Spirit within him?

Psa 51:10-11
(10) Create in me a clean heart, O God; and renew a right spirit within me.
(11) Cast me not away from thy presence; and take not thy holy spirit from me.
 

Timtofly

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Some of them may be, and if so, that makes them "bad Amils," as I said. <chuckles>


I have said over and over and over again that Revelation 20:1-6 is not completely fulfilled yet, but will be. As of now, it is still being brought to completion.


Well, yes, the thousand-year millennial reign of Christ has started already, but it is not on earth; He is ruling now from heaven, seated at the right hand of God. Even while Jesus was here on earth a little over two thousand years ago, He said He was King then, but that His kingdom was not of this world. Do you think that at some point after that He ceased to be King? Surely not... When he returns, His millennial reign will have ended and His eternal reign will have then begun. As a Christian, Stewardofthemystery, who is your King? Who, right now, is your King? I hope your answer is, "Jesus"... <smile>


But you, Stewardoftheministry ~ and apparently some of the supposed "Amils" you are talking to ~ are mistaken about Amillennialism in the first place, which I have been very clear about. Goodness gracious.

Grace and peace to you, SOTM.
This being beheaded is not ongoing.

The 7th Trumpet has not sounded. Many Amil deny the 7th Trumpet already sounded, but then contradict that point, by saying people are already being beheaded.


The mark and being beheaded cannot even start until after the 7th Trumpet sounds. So, no, being beheaded is not ongoing. Being beheaded is a 42 month time frame known as the third woe, when the 7th Trumpet sounds to declare Jesus as the 7th one world kingdom. Jesus is declared the ruler over all nations as the 7th in line from the head, Babylon ruled by Nebuchadnezzar.

Jesus has not been declared King over all nation's per Revelation 11:15:


"And the seventh angel sounded; and there were great voices in heaven, saying, The kingdoms of this world are become the kingdoms of our Lord, and of his Christ; and he shall reign for ever and ever."

Revelation 20:4 cannot even happen unless there are people beheaded after the 7th Trumpet sounds.

This is when the mark happens:

"Therefore rejoice, ye heavens, and ye that dwell in them. Woe to the inhabiters of the earth and of the sea! for the devil is come down unto you, having great wrath, because he knoweth that he hath but a short time.... And there was given unto him a mouth speaking great things and blasphemies; and power was given unto him to continue forty and two months. And he opened his mouth in blasphemy against God, to blaspheme his name, and his tabernacle, and them that dwell in heaven. And it was given unto him to make war with the saints, and to overcome them: and power was given him over all kindreds, and tongues, and nations. And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world... And he had power to give life unto the image of the beast, that the image of the beast should both speak, and cause that as many as would not worship the image of the beast should be killed. And he causeth all, both small and great, rich and poor, free and bond, to receive a mark in their right hand, or in their foreheads:"

That is the result of the third woe after the 7th Trumpet has sounded.

The 7th Trumpet has not sounded yet. There is no 3rd woe yet. There is no false prophet allowed to set up an image with Satan, and cause people to receive a mark for 42 months yet. So no one is beheaded yet.

"And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands."

For there to be people beheaded these criteria have to exist:

They did not worship the beast.

They did not worship the image.

They did not receive a mark on their foreheads or in their hands.

This criteria is only found in the 3rd woe, after the 7th Trumpet has sounded. 42 months is not symbolic of some indefinite time period. Satan's time is short and 42 months is the maximum amount allowed, not an indefinite short period of time involving thousands of years!
 

Deborah_

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In the KJV with Strong's Concordance it appears twice

John 11:26 KJV with Srong's
And whosoever liveth [3588 2198: o zao: THE ZAO] and believeth in me shall apothanē [599: apothanē: die] not at all [3756 3361] apothanē [599: apothanē: die] - to the age [3588 165: o aiōna]. Believest thou this?
A concordance isn't the place to go for the actual Greek text - especially if it's online. The online Greek dictionary that I use frequently repeats words in the verses that it quotes - up to three times in some cases!

Here is the actual text: 26 καὶ πᾶς ὁ ζῶν καὶ πιστεύων εἰς ἐμὲ οὐ μὴ ἀποθάνῃ εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα· πιστεύεις τοῦτο;
Check it yourself at John 11:26 - Original Greek Text

The New Testament does not ever refer to those whose bodies have died as "zao". It calls them dead, and it uses different words in reference to the dead.

Example:

I Corinthians 7:39:
The wife is bound by the law as long as her husband liveth [zao]; but if her husband be dead [koimao], she is at liberty to be married to whom she will; only in the Lord.
Context makes it obvious that physical life and death are meant here.

In every single verse where the word appears in the New Testament, the word záō (zAO) is referring either

(a) to the living God, the living Christ, and living water; or

(b) to those human beings who are alive in the body.
John 11:26 would be a good example - but then Jesus says that these people (living in the body) will not die - even though we know that they will die physically! They are physically dead, so the only logical conclusion is that they must be spiritually alive.
 

Stewardofthemystery

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It occurred at the Cross when Christ went to the Cross. Half of the living water went to the former sea (Saints of the old testament) and Hinder sea (Saints of the New Testament).
The Living waters is the Living Word of God, given before and after Jesus was crucified.

1 Corinthians 10:4
And did all drink the same spiritual drink: for they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them: and that Rock was Christ.


 

PinSeeker

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So those in Revelation 20:4, were not born again until years, months, weeks, or days after they were physically beheaded. People are beheaded instead of receiving the mark, 42 months prior to this resurrection mentioned. Not all at the same time, nor was it a constant slaughter every minute for 42 months. Over these 42 months, a few people, or many people were beheaded. Then after Satan is bound they stand before thrones and are judged. Then they receive the second birth (born of the Spirit) and the first resurrection. When do they ever live again, as you claim they are still physically dead for the entire 1,000 years. You deny they have a physical body during those thousand years. What is the point of living again, if one is not living again? In other words a thousand years later no one lives again, either, as that would not be living again physically just like not living again physically a thousand years ago.

Those a thousand years later would receive the second birth (born of the Spirit) the first resurrection, only a thousand years later.

The first resurrection is the only physical resurrection you will ever have.
The second. And that will be when Christ returns.

Stop hijacking biblical terms.
LOL!

Revelation 20 is not saying there is a hierarchy of physical resurrections where the beheaded are more important than those a thousand years later.
Yeah, not sure why you're telling me that...

Revelation 20 is not even saying there is a first resurrection and later a second resurrection.
Verses 4-6 is spiritual in nature, and the first, and the second, which is the physical, occurs just after the return of Christ in verse 7 and just prior to the opening of the judgment scene in verse 11.
The only resurrection mentioned is a physical resurrection
Nope. The only one explicitly mentioned is the spiritual one, and the physical, which is the second, is implied as just having occurred prior to the final Judgment depicted in Revelation 20:11-15.

and the physical resurrection is called the first resurrection.
Nope. See above.

A physical resurrection will happen before and after the thousand years.
The only physical resurrection occurs after the "thousand years," and is the resurrection spoken of by Jesus in Revelation 5:28-29.

It is still a first resurrection at the beginning and at the end of the thousand years,
LOL!

because every physical resurrection is a first resurrection.
Every spiritual resurrection, which occurs for each member of God's elect during his or her physical life on this planet, is a part of the first resurrection; this is how we, as believers, "share in the first resurrection" and are thus "blessed" (Revelation 20:6).

That's quite enough. Goodness gracious.

Grace and peace to you.