Magdala
Active Member
But John doesn't say the word was a person. You are adding that.
I said that John said, "God was the Word" (1:1), and that "the Word flesh became and dwelt among us" (1:14). Is it not so that God was the Word? Is it not so that the Word (God) having become flesh indicates that prior to becoming human, the Word preexisted (God) as not a human?
I understand your question, but it assumes your answer.
Firstly, I asked, "Who sent the Word to become a human?", then I followed up with the answer, "the Thought (the Father)", to which you replied, "John doesn't say that the word was sent in that passage (Jn. 1:1)", but I didn't say that the words "'the Word was sent" are in Jn. 1:1.
Secondly, I say that the Word was sent because Jesus said that the Father (the Thought) sent Him (Jn. 3:17;34;5:30;6:38;7:28-29;8:29;11:42;12:49;17:3;20:21;1 Jn. 4:9). Is it not so that the Word became human and dwelt among the people (Jn. 1:14) by being conceived by the Holy Spirit, and born of the Virgin, and that He was named "Jesus" (Matt. 1:20, Lk. 1:31;35)?
The Jews misconstrued Jesus' statements as a claim to be God
Here is another faithful record of a faulty interpretation by the Jews.
[...] the Jews were misconstruing Jesus' comments to mean something that he would never claim.
So, regarding Jn. 5:1-18;10:22-39, Matt. 26:57-68/Lk. 22:66-71 (cf. PV2, PV4, PV5), you're saying that those who attempted to kill Jesus for blasphemy did so because they thought He was saying that He's God. At the very least, that tells me you believe it was their understanding that Jesus was saying that He's God, which is good, even if you presently believe that they falsely interpreted His Words.
Now, considering, for example, the endless number of Jesus's miracles, which are manifestations of His divine nature, down to the last ones: His Resurrection and Ascension into Heaven, do you acknowledge it's possible that their interpretation of Jesus's Words was actually true, but they rejected His Words?
Your premise does not support your conclusion. If, as you say, Abraham saw Jesus' day "as in prophetically," then Jesus' day was not yet a reality. And if Jesus' day was not yet a reality, then Jesus wasn't either.
Jesus has used the phrase "I am" more than once in contexts where the meaning is clearly "I am he"; That is, "I am the coming Messiah spoken of by the prophets."
Jesus spoke to the Judaeans saying, "if a person keeps My Word, he will never see death" (Jn. 8:51). The Judaeans asked in reply, "Are You greater than Abraham and the prophets, who died? Who do You think You are?" (Jn. 8:53) to which Jesus affirmed by saying, for example, that He follows His Father's Word (Jn. 8:55), the same Word that He said was His Word in Jn. 8:51, and so on. Jesus went on to say, "Abraham longed to see My day, and he saw it, and rejoiced" (Jn. 8:56). It's a statement made by Jesus that suggests Abraham had a prophetic vision of the Messiah's coming. It is there in Israel that the Promise was fulfilled. It was accomplished in Jesus. Abraham saw it, prophetically, through a grace of God, and rejoiced, unlike many of those Jesus was speaking to who were really living it. The Judaeans responded dismissively saying, "You are not yet fifty years old and You are telling us that Abraham has seen You and You have seen him?", and this time Jesus reaffirmed that He's God and the Christ (Messiah) by having said, "before Abraham was born I am" (Jn. 8:59, cf. PV4). For Jesus to say "before Abraham was born I am" is significant because only God can say that He's eternal: God spoke to Moses, saying, l AM THE BEING; and he said, Thus shall ye say to the children of Israel, THE BEING has sent me to you. And God said again to Moses, thus shalt thou say to the sons of Israel, the Lord God of our fathers, the God of Abraham, and God of Isaac, and God of Jacob, has sent me to you: this is My name for ever, and my memorial to generations of generations" (English translation from The Tanakh, Ex. 3:14-15). It was understood that Jesus said He's God, and thus they took up stones to throw at Him for blasphemy. (Jn. 8:59, cf. PV4)
Your objection does not disprove my statement because I never claimed that everyone believed Jesus would be a theophany.
I never said that you did, but rather quoted your following statement regarding Jesus's trial: "The Pharisee's accusation was based on their belief that the Messiah would be an angel or a theophany [...]". It's false to say the Pharisees believed that the Messiah would be an angel, or a theophany, because at one point, Jesus had asked the Pharisees, "According to you, what do you think of the Christ (Messiah)? Whose son is He?", and they rightly answered, "the descendant of David". (Matt. 22:41-46, cf. PV5)
[...] the topic of discussion was the rank of Jesus as compared to the rank of David.
Following the Pharisees rightly answering that the Christ (Messiah) will be the descendant of David, Jesus asked them, "How, then, does David, inspired by God, call Him "Lord" saying: 'The Lord (God) said to my Lord (Christ): 'Sit at my right hand (the place of greatest honor) until I make Your enemies a footstool for You?' So if David calls the Christ "Lord", how can the Christ be his son?". Jesus was asking the Pharisees why David would call his "son" (his descendant) "my Lord" who sits at the right hand of God, unless the Christ (Messiah) has some significant status beyond being David's descendant. The Pharisees didn't have an answer (Matt. 22:41-46, cf. PV5). In summary, as pointed out by Jesus, David made it clear that the Christ (Messiah) has significant status beyond being his descendant, whether you agree with me in what way or not.
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