Exploring Trinitarian Logic

[face2face]

Dear Aunty,
Our life on this earth is very SHORT.
DO NOT wait until you die to bow your knee and confess with your tongue that Jesus Christ is LORD

Look up Genesis chapter 1 in the Hebrew = PLURAL = 3

Look up Elohim and Elohenu in the Hebrew = PLURAL = 3

GOSPEL = PLURAL = 3 = SAME 3 from Genesis

Apostles writings = PLURAL = 3

Revelation = PLURAL = 3

FYI - the RCC is EVIL and i ran from it into the TRUE LIVING ELOHIM

Out of interest at what age did you leave school, or were asked to leave?

 

[Pierac]

The Holy Angels know THEY are THREE

In the year that King Uzziah died, I saw the Lord sitting on a throne, high and lifted up, and the train of His robe filled the temple.
Above it stood seraphim; each one had six wings: with two he covered his face, with two he covered his feet, and with two he flew.
And one cried to another and said:

“Holy, Holy, Holy is the Lord of hosts;
The whole earth is full of His glory!”

Really...
Heb 1:1 God, after He spoke long ago to the fathers in the prophets in many portions and in many ways, in these last days has spoken to us in His Son, whom He appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the world.

Grab you spitural ankles David....

The New Testament puts this theory about the angel of the Lord being Jesus in his preexistence to rest in Hebrews 1: “God, after He spoke long ago to the fathers in the prophets in many portions and in many ways, in these last days has spoken to us in His Son” (v 1-2).

So, the Son of God “did not speak” in the Old Testament days! Back in those days God spoke in various ways and only in “portions,” whether by vision or by prophet or by angel. It is only since Jesus Christ was brought into existence at birth and appeared “in these last days” that we have heard God speak “in his Son.” This is axiomatic. Jesus Christ was not God's messenger before his appearance as a man, born of Mary in history. Look at the scriptures:

Act 7:53 you who received the law as ordained by angels, and yet did not keep it."

Gal 3:19 Why the Law then? It was added because of transgressions, having been ordained through angels by the agency of a mediator, until the seed would come to whom the promise had been made.

Heb 2:2 For if the word spoken through angels proved unalterable, and every transgression and disobedience received a just penalty,

There was No Jesus giving the Law... before He was Born of Mary!!!

So.... you actually think the Angles who gave the LAW long ago... Knew they are three?

I Think NOT!!!

Really.... How can you post here.... and Not Know these things???

 

[face2face]

Really.... How can you post here.... and Not Know these things???

Go easy with David, I think you have spanked him so hard you have bruised his brain!

I've not laughed this hard for a long long time - thank you Pierac!

F2F

 

[Wrangler]

What part of...
The Word was from the beginning. The Word was God. The Word became flesh. ...
... don't you understand?

Was it the... Word was from the beginning part?

The word is not Jesus. That’s what you refuse to grasp. God’s word was put in the mouth of one of the Israeli people.

Having God’s word in our mouth is figurative and does not make one God.

 

[Wrangler]

Paul -

Gal 2:20 - I have been crucified with Christ. It is no longer I who live, but Christ who lives in me. And the life I now live in the flesh I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me and gave himself for me.

Is that a reality for Unitarians?

It’s real but the pivot point is between literal or figurative.

 

[face2face]

Paul -

Gal 2:20 - I have been crucified with Christ. It is no longer I who live, but Christ who lives in me. And the life I now live in the flesh I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me and gave himself for me.

Is that a reality for Unitarians?

Wow the importance of understanding the red text given what we have shown you on his nature is essential knowledge for salvation.

If you dare to look at what we have "in" & "with" him you would be astounded!

F2F

 

[David in NJ]

Why is life on this earth so short David? Was it meant to be short? How long did humans live after Adam’s sin and before the flood? Read Genesis ch 5 and see the longevity. Noah was 500 years old before he had children!
When God told Adam that he would die “the day” he ate from the forbidden fruit....did he die in that 24 hour period or was it the case as Peter stated....?
2 Peter 3:8...
“However, do not let this escape your notice, beloved ones, that one day is with Jehovah as a thousand years and a thousand years as one day.”
Look at the ages and see that the oldest living human was Methuselah who lived to be 969....or just short of the thousand years.

It becomes very apparent after some discussion who has studied theology and who has actually studied the Bible....JW’s study the whole Bible, which exposes theology as a tainted version of what the Bible says in cherry picked verses skewed to accommodate an ancient lie that has been perpetuated down to this day. .

Every one of your points here has been scripturally refuted, but this is just a refusal to acknowledge what you do not want to hear.....only God can unblock ears, unblind eyes and unlock hearts.....he did that for me over 50 years ago...and I have never stopped learning and extracting gems from that spiritual treasure chest.

You are stuck in ancient doctrines formulated by a church you claim to have run from.....why do you still believe her lies? (2 Cor 4:3-4) Before the RCC there was no official “church” doctrine of the trinity......satan had gradually introduced a foreign god (with three heads) claiming to be the true God, when Jesus and his apostles had never served such a god....didn’t know such a god, and never would have served such a foreign deity.

Satan is the one who promotes the worship of multiple gods....the God of Israel was the God of Jesus Christ....he was “ONE” not three. (Deut 6:4) Claiming three gods in one entity is a violation of the first Commandment. You have three gods in the place of the Father. (Ex 20:3)

You and i are not living in the pre-flood era of earth.

 

[ProDeo]

Yes, I know that translations can vary on many things, but as far as scripture, twisted to accommodate the trinity is concerned, bias in translation wins out when the translators are trinitarians.

Let’s examine the passage in question and see why we have a different take on it....

Here is the rendering of the NASB....Phil 2:5-11....

“Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped”.....

Let’s stop there because we already have a translation issue...

Absolutely, we have.

Which is the correct rendering? From the translation you used, it seems as if Jesus was “in the form of God” but what does that expression mean? What “form” does God have?

According to the apostle John...”God is a spirit” (John 4:24) which means that Yahweh exists in spirit form, not in any tangible material state. Paul also calls him “the invisible God” (Col 1:15) So scripturally the pre-human Jesus existed in spirit form, as do all who inhabit the spirit realm.

Next....
“and “thought it not robbery to be equal with God”....or “did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped”...big difference in the rendering there....one is suggesting equality with God, the other is denying it...so which is correct?

Yep, which translation is correct, that's the question.

Which one to trust.

The NWT has an asterisk with the word “seizure” where the Greek is interpreted as.... “Or, “thing to be seized.” Lit., “snatching.”....so Jesus never once thought of snatching deity, or equality with his God. He only ever called himself “the son of God”.

Is there any scripture that has Jesus ever claiming equality with his God and Father? I assure you there is not a single clear statement where Jesus ever claimed to be equal to his Father as part of a triune “godhead”...this Word was made up by trinitarians...it does not exist in the Bible.

Let's make our discussion easier and limit ourselves to the question, Jesus was a divine Being, preexisted with the Father before creation, participated with the Father in creation, descended from heaven, became flesh and then continue with v7 on which we don't have a disagreement - but did empty himself, the form of a servant having taken, in the likeness of men having been made, and in fashion having been found as a man, he humbled himself, having become obedient unto death--death even of a cross,

Are we still in agreement?

“but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men. Being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.”

Taking on human form was a humble act because it meant giving up his glorious spiritual body to take on human flesh. This made him “lower than the angels” so we can only imagine the humility it took to volunteer for that assignment....but he loved his God and he also dearly loved the human race whom he had a hand in creating. And it also required his obedience...to whom is God obedient? Himself?

The Father is more than the Son.

“For this reason also, God highly exalted Him, and bestowed on Him the name which is above every name”
Read that again....can God highly exalt himself? Can God give himself a name that is above the one he already has as “the Most High over all the earth” (Psalm 83:18 KJV)
There is no name higher than Yahweh.

I have read it and you are correct, as I said above and what we learned from Christ Himself - my Father is greater than I. [John 14:28]

As for your question it's simple, the Father and the Son are 2 distinct Personalities and how it is with predestination and also with the Lamb slain before the creation of the world things still have to be played out. I don't think Christ could fail, nevertheless Christ still had to proof before : God highly exalted Him, and bestowed on Him the name which is above every name”

“so that at the name of Jesus every knee will bow, of those who are in heaven and on earth and under the earth”
Is this bowing, “worship”....or is it reverence for his position as our savior and as the “son of God”?

Obeisance and worship are the same word in Greek, (pro·sky·neʹo) so how do we know which way to translate it....? Context. When describing what is rendered to God, it is “worship”...but when rendered to a human being, it is “obeisance”. Jesus was a human being.

“and that every tongue will confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.”

Confessing that Jesus is “Lord” is not another way of saying that “Jesus is God”.....the title “Lord” is the English equivalent of calling someone in authority, “Sir”......

Christendom has made “the Lord” into “The LORD” which was only made possible because the disobedient Jews refused to utter the divine name. (Exodus 3:15) Had God’s illustrious name still been used in the first century, Christendom could never have gotten away with the formulation of the trinity.

I don't believe that's true, I believe Jesus was a divine Being, preexisted with the Father before creation, participated with the Father in creation, descended from heaven, became flesh to save us, the Lamb slain. In that way I read my Bible and I don't have to fight against a long list of passages that hint to Christ oneness with the Father before creation and during His stay on Earth, the most clear one - I and the Father are one.

All that the son accomplished in his earthly mission was to glorify his Father...not himself.

Correct, with the exception of parts in John 17.

The devil has succeeded as he always does, in his deception with people who cannot be corrected....

Pot Kettle ?

Alright, thank you, among all utilitarians here you are the best defender of what you have chosen to believe.

 

[St. SteVen]

Gal 2:20 - I have been crucified with Christ. It is no longer I who live, but Christ who lives in me. And the life I now live in the flesh I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me and gave himself for me.

Is that a reality for Unitarians?

That's an interesting question. How could Christ indwell us if he is not God?

[ cc: @Wrangler

 

[Pierac]

Paul -

Gal 2:20 - I have been crucified with Christ. It is no longer I who live, but Christ who lives in me. And the life I now live in the flesh I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me and gave himself for me.

Is that a reality for Unitarians?

You tell me?

Mar 10:27 Looking at them, Jesus *said, "With people it is impossible, but not with God; for all things are possible with God."

LOL.... no really... LOL

Isa 46:10 declaring the end from the beginning and from ancient time’s things not yet done, saying, 'My counsel shall stand, and I will accomplish all my purpose,'

What purpose?

Psa 115:3 Our God is in the heavens; he does all that he pleases.

What pleases?

Just what does this mean?

Joh 3:17 For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but in order that the world might be saved through him.

What World? beacaues less that 10% of all humans born have even known of Jesus! What kind of a loser of the salvation of men you claim??? One that.... can say I only save 10% of all humans born!!! because billions have never heard of me... according to your Christian world view

Let's look at mine.... the God of Love....

Rom 11:32 For God has consigned all to disobedience, that he may have mercy on all.

1Jo 2:2 and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world.

Propitiation
1. The act of appeasing wrath and conciliating the favor of an offended person; the act of making propitious.

2. In theology, the atonement or atoning sacrifice offered to God to assuage his wrath and render him propitious to sinners. Christ is the propitiation for the sins of men. Rom 3. 1 John 2.

1Ti 2:3 This is good, and it is pleasing in the sight of God our Savior, 4 who desires2309 all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.5 For there is one God, and one mediator also between God and men, the man Christ Jesus, 6 who gave Himself as a
ransom for all, the testimony given at the proper time.

Note: “desires2309” In 1 Titus 2:4 is assigned Strong’s number 2309 θέλω / ἐθέλω thelō / ethelō Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon Definition: 1) to will, have in mind, intend Now review... Isa 46:10

Little child....

1Ti 4:10 For it is for this we labor and strive, because we have fixed our hope on the living God, who is the Savior of all men, especially of believers.

Context is King!!!

How do you not know these things....

 

[David in NJ]

Really...
Heb 1:1 God, after He spoke long ago to the fathers in the prophets in many portions and in many ways, in these last days has spoken to us in His Son, whom He appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the world.

Grab you spitural ankles David....

The New Testament puts this theory about the angel of the Lord being Jesus in his preexistence to rest in Hebrews 1: “God, after He spoke long ago to the fathers in the prophets in many portions and in many ways, in these last days has spoken to us in His Son” (v 1-2).

So, the Son of God “did not speak” in the Old Testament days! Back in those days God spoke in various ways and only in “portions,” whether by vision or by prophet or by angel. It is only since Jesus Christ was brought into existence at birth and appeared “in these last days” that we have heard God speak “in his Son.” This is axiomatic. Jesus Christ was not God's messenger before his appearance as a man, born of Mary in history. Look at the scriptures:

Act 7:53 you who received the law as ordained by angels, and yet did not keep it."

Gal 3:19 Why the Law then? It was added because of transgressions, having been ordained through angels by the agency of a mediator, until the seed would come to whom the promise had been made.

Heb 2:2 For if the word spoken through angels proved unalterable, and every transgression and disobedience received a just penalty,

There was No Jesus giving the Law... before He was Born of Mary!!!

So.... you actually think the Angles who gave the LAW long ago... Knew they are three?

I Think NOT!!!

Really.... How can you post here.... and Not Know these things???

Heb 1:1 God, after He spoke long ago to the fathers in the prophets in many portions and in many ways, in these last days has spoken to us in His Son, whom He appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the world.

God in Hebrew is Elohim Plural = the FATHER Spoke to the prophets thru the Word that was God in the Beginning.

This is from Jeremiah chapter 1

Then the word of the Lord came to me, saying:

But the Lord said to me:

Then the Lord put forth His hand and touched my mouth, and the Lord said to me:

Moreover the word of the Lord came to me, saying,

Then the Lord said to me, “

and the word of the Lord came to me the second time, saying

Then the Lord said to me:

When the Word became flesh the FATHER Spoke DIRECTLY to His SON while on earth in the flesh

Your blindness is astounding!!!

 

[face2face]

That's an interesting question. How could Christ indwell us if he is not God?

[ cc: @Wrangler

In the same way that God (Yahweh) was present in all the prophets and kings of the Old Testament, through their obedience to the commandments in spirit and truth.

Do you think that has changed?

Abraham did not know Christ in the way that you think you do, yet the Gospel was preached to him, and he is called the friend of God, as stated in James 2:23.

But if that is not enough this should suffice:

"Let all the house of Israel therefore know for certain that God has made him both Lord and Christ, this Jesus whom you crucified."

You know the problems you face with that text!

F2F

 

[Wrangler]

That's an interesting question. How could Christ indwell us if he is not God?

[ cc: @Wrangler

False Alternative. Why does indwelling require one to be God? Your implied premise is hereby rejected!

The answer to your question is simple; agency. Through Christ’s baptism, God’s Spirit dwelled in Jesus, who in him, through him, in the unity of God’s Spirit, dwells in us. How? By God’s power who GAVE Jesus all authority in heaven and Earth.

I hope I answered your question.

 

[face2face]

Mr. Trinny has made another questionable comment, and we need to address the flawed reasoning behind it.

"To say that Christ could not sin is not tantamount to maintaining He could not be tempted."

Alright, Mr. Trinny, if, as you say, Christ could not sin, can you explain the purpose of his temptations then?

What was the point if he couldn't sin? The agony in resisting sin, the testing of faith under trials - sweating as it were great drops of blood?

What was it all for if sin was not possible?

Who in the forum would like to provide an answer?

F2F

 

[Pierac]

Heb 1:1 God, after He spoke long ago to the fathers in the prophets in many portions and in many ways, in these last days has spoken to us in His Son, whom He appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the world.

God in Hebrew is Elohim Plural = the FATHER Spoke to the prophets thru the Word that was God in the Beginning.

This is from Jeremiah chapter 1

Then the word of the Lord came to me, saying:

But the Lord said to me:

Then the Lord put forth His hand and touched my mouth, and the Lord said to me:

Moreover the word of the Lord came to me, saying,

Then the Lord said to me, “

and the word of the Lord came to me the second time, saying

Then the Lord said to me:

When the Word became flesh the FATHER Spoke DIRECTLY to His SON while on earth in the flesh

Your blindness is astounding!!!

No... Your lack of biblical understanding is astounding!!!

Elohim has been a very confusing word for many people LIKE YOU. The word elohim is used various ways in Scripture. It is not only used to describe the Almighty, but also individual pagan gods and even mighty human beings. Elohim may be translated as God, god, angels, judges, or even a human being who stands as God's representative or agent. For example, the sons of Heth address Abraham as "a mighty prince," the word for "mighty" being elohim (Genesis 23:6). Some translations have Abraham here being called "Prince of God." Take another instance. In Exodus 4, the Lord tells Moses that he "shall be as God" (elohim) to his brother Aaron. Moses will have God's words in his mouth, and will stand as God's representative before Aaron. Here is a case where an individual human is called elohim. Again in Exodus 7:1, the Lord says to Moses, "See, I make you God [elohim] to Pharaoh." No one dares to suggest that there is a plurality of persons within Moses because he is called elohim, that is, God's representative. The pagan god Dagon is also called elohim in the Hebrew Bible. The Philistines lamented that the God of Israel was harshly treating "Dagon our God [elohim]" (1 Sam. 5:7). Dagon was a single pagan deity. The same holds true for the single pagan god called Chemosh: “Do you not possess what Chemosh your god [elohim] gives you to possess?" (Jud. 11:24). The same for the single deity called Baal.

The Hebrew language has many examples of words which are plural but whose meaning is singular. In Genesis 23, Abraham's wife Sarah dies. The Hebrew text says, "the lives [plural] of Sarah were 127 years" (v. 1). Even the plural verb that accompanies the pronoun does not mean Sarah lived multiple lives. The Hebrews never taught reincarnation or plurality of personhood. Another example of this kind of anomaly in the Hebrew language is found in Genesis 43. After Joseph wept to see his brothers, we read that Joseph "washed his faces" (plural). This is another instance where in the Hebrew language the plural noun functions as a singular noun with a singular meaning, unless, of course, Joseph was a multi-faced human being! The same occurs in Genesis 16:8 where Hagar flees from "the faces" (plural) of her mistress Sarah. These are "anomalies" of the Hebrew language that are clearly understood by Hebrew scholars who rightly translate to a singular form in English.

The better explanation is that the Hebrews used a form of speech called "the plural of majesty." Put simply this means that someone whose position was warrant of dignity was spoken in this way as giving a sign of honor. The plural acted as a means of intensification:

Elohim must rather be explained as an intensive plural, denoting greatness and majesty.

Whenever the word elohim refers to the God of Israel the Septuagint uses the singular and not the plural. From Genesis 1:1 consistently right through, this holds true. The Hebrews who translated their own scriptures into Greek simply had no idea that their God could be more than one individual, or a multiple personal Being! This is true too when we come to the New Testament. The New Testament nowhere hints at a plurality in the meaning of elohim when it reproduces references to the One God as ho theos, the One God.

You can let go of your ankles now... my arm is getting tired of spanking your theology and total lack of Biblical Understanding as shown above!

How do you not know these things and still manage to post here?

 

[David in NJ]

No... Your lack of biblical understanding is astounding!!!

Elohim has been a very confusing word for many people LIKE YOU. The word elohim is used various ways in Scripture. It is not only used to describe the Almighty, but also individual pagan gods and even mighty human beings. Elohim may be translated as God, god, angels, judges, or even a human being who stands as God's representative or agent. For example, the sons of Heth address Abraham as "a mighty prince," the word for "mighty" being elohim (Genesis 23:6). Some translations have Abraham here being called "Prince of God." Take another instance. In Exodus 4, the Lord tells Moses that he "shall be as God" (elohim) to his brother Aaron. Moses will have God's words in his mouth, and will stand as God's representative before Aaron. Here is a case where an individual human is called elohim. Again in Exodus 7:1, the Lord says to Moses, "See, I make you God [elohim] to Pharaoh." No one dares to suggest that there is a plurality of persons within Moses because he is called elohim, that is, God's representative. The pagan god Dagon is also called elohim in the Hebrew Bible. The Philistines lamented that the God of Israel was harshly treating "Dagon our God [elohim]" (1 Sam. 5:7). Dagon was a single pagan deity. The same holds true for the single pagan god called Chemosh: “Do you not possess what Chemosh your god [elohim] gives you to possess?" (Jud. 11:24). The same for the single deity called Baal.

The Hebrew language has many examples of words which are plural but whose meaning is singular. In Genesis 23, Abraham's wife Sarah dies. The Hebrew text says, "the lives [plural] of Sarah were 127 years" (v. 1). Even the plural verb that accompanies the pronoun does not mean Sarah lived multiple lives. The Hebrews never taught reincarnation or plurality of personhood. Another example of this kind of anomaly in the Hebrew language is found in Genesis 43. After Joseph wept to see his brothers, we read that Joseph "washed his faces" (plural). This is another instance where in the Hebrew language the plural noun functions as a singular noun with a singular meaning, unless, of course, Joseph was a multi-faced human being! The same occurs in Genesis 16:8 where Hagar flees from "the faces" (plural) of her mistress Sarah. These are "anomalies" of the Hebrew language that are clearly understood by Hebrew scholars who rightly translate to a singular form in English.

The better explanation is that the Hebrews used a form of speech called "the plural of majesty." Put simply this means that someone whose position was warrant of dignity was spoken in this way as giving a sign of honor. The plural acted as a means of intensification:

Elohim must rather be explained as an intensive plural, denoting greatness and majesty.

Whenever the word elohim refers to the God of Israel the Septuagint uses the singular and not the plural. From Genesis 1:1 consistently right through, this holds true. The Hebrews who translated their own scriptures into Greek simply had no idea that their God could be more than one individual, or a multiple personal Being! This is true too when we come to the New Testament. The New Testament nowhere hints at a plurality in the meaning of elohim when it reproduces references to the One God as ho theos, the One God.

You can let go of your ankles now... my arm is getting tired of spanking your theology and total lack of Biblical Understanding as shown above!

How do you not know these things and still manage to post here?

human intellectual blindness

Elohim is PLURAL but Spoken as singular because THEY are Echad Elohim = Let Us make man in Our image according to Our likeness

You can post page after page but your words only speak of blindness to the Holy Scriptures of who Elohim IS
Same as the monotheistic jews who picked up stones to stone the LORD who came to earth.

Only the sons of Elohim know the WAY the TRUTH and the LIFE

 

[David in NJ]

The New Testament nowhere hints at a plurality in the meaning of elohim when it reproduces references to the One God as ho theos, the One God.

Before Abraham IAM
I and my FATHER are ONE
I, My FATHER and the HOLY SPIRIT are ONE

your blindness is ASTOUNDING = same as the jews who cried crucify Him crucify Him

 

[MonoBiblical]

No... Your lack of biblical understanding is astounding!!!

Elohim has been a very confusing word for many people LIKE YOU. The word elohim is used various ways in Scripture. It is not only used to describe the Almighty, but also individual pagan gods and even mighty human beings. Elohim may be translated as God, god, angels, judges, or even a human being who stands as God's representative or agent. For example, the sons of Heth address Abraham as "a mighty prince," the word for "mighty" being elohim (Genesis 23:6). Some translations have Abraham here being called "Prince of God." Take another instance. In Exodus 4, the Lord tells Moses that he "shall be as God" (elohim) to his brother Aaron. Moses will have God's words in his mouth, and will stand as God's representative before Aaron. Here is a case where an individual human is called elohim. Again in Exodus 7:1, the Lord says to Moses, "See, I make you God [elohim] to Pharaoh." No one dares to suggest that there is a plurality of persons within Moses because he is called elohim, that is, God's representative. The pagan god Dagon is also called elohim in the Hebrew Bible. The Philistines lamented that the God of Israel was harshly treating "Dagon our God [elohim]" (1 Sam. 5:7). Dagon was a single pagan deity. The same holds true for the single pagan god called Chemosh: “Do you not possess what Chemosh your god [elohim] gives you to possess?" (Jud. 11:24). The same for the single deity called Baal.

The Hebrew language has many examples of words which are plural but whose meaning is singular. In Genesis 23, Abraham's wife Sarah dies. The Hebrew text says, "the lives [plural] of Sarah were 127 years" (v. 1). Even the plural verb that accompanies the pronoun does not mean Sarah lived multiple lives. The Hebrews never taught reincarnation or plurality of personhood. Another example of this kind of anomaly in the Hebrew language is found in Genesis 43. After Joseph wept to see his brothers, we read that Joseph "washed his faces" (plural). This is another instance where in the Hebrew language the plural noun functions as a singular noun with a singular meaning, unless, of course, Joseph was a multi-faced human being! The same occurs in Genesis 16:8 where Hagar flees from "the faces" (plural) of her mistress Sarah. These are "anomalies" of the Hebrew language that are clearly understood by Hebrew scholars who rightly translate to a singular form in English.

The better explanation is that the Hebrews used a form of speech called "the plural of majesty." Put simply this means that someone whose position was warrant of dignity was spoken in this way as giving a sign of honor. The plural acted as a means of intensification:

Elohim must rather be explained as an intensive plural, denoting greatness and majesty.

Whenever the word elohim refers to the God of Israel the Septuagint uses the singular and not the plural. From Genesis 1:1 consistently right through, this holds true. The Hebrews who translated their own scriptures into Greek simply had no idea that their God could be more than one individual, or a multiple personal Being! This is true too when we come to the New Testament. The New Testament nowhere hints at a plurality in the meaning of elohim when it reproduces references to the One God as ho theos, the One God.

You can let go of your ankles now... my arm is getting tired of spanking your theology and total lack of Biblical Understanding as shown above!

How do you not know these things and still manage to post here?

Actually, El has been replaced with Elohim in the Tanak, as well as Aramaic syntax with Rabbinic syntax.

 

[MonoBiblical]

Before Abraham IAM
I and my FATHER are ONE
I, My FATHER and the HOLY SPIRIT are ONE

your blindness is ASTOUNDING = same as the jews who cried crucify Him crucify Him

Don't you mean Israelites? Maybe you should up the ante with more of it

 

[David in NJ]

Actually, El has been replaced with Elohim in the Tanak, as well as Aramaic syntax with Rabbinic syntax.

the oral tradition was written by dead in sins jews of the flesh in REBELLION against God

They crucified the Son of God and in no way are they able to SEE the WAY the TRUTH and the LIFE

monotheistic atheism always persecutes those who walk in the LIGHT