Davidpt
Well-Known Member
We also don't know when the 'great trib ends', or when it starts
Jesus does tell us to watch for the signs.
Except we do know when it starts and ends. It begins with the AOD. It ends with the beginning of the day of the Lord. Some interpreters insist the AOD was involving the 2nd temple before it was destroyed, except they all can't agree with each other what that AOD looked like, which then raises a red flag. Why can't they all agree with each other if it's true that the AOD was fulfilled 2000 ago? It's not like it should still be a mystery as to what it looked like if it was already fulfilled.
Plus it makes Jesus a liar in Matthew 24:21 if that was fulfilled 2000 years ago but that Daniel 12:1 is meaning some 2000 years later. Look at the following side by side then imagine the former preceding the latter rather than both involving the same time period.
such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be
such as never was since there was a nation even to that same time
I thought Jesus said this time of trouble can't be equaled nor surpassed in greatness? Where He then said since the beginning of the world(kosmos not ge)
But then Daniel 12:1 says--such as never was since there was a nation even to that same time. Why wouldn't, since there was a nation not be connected with the beginning of the world(kosmos)?
Either Jesus is lying to us or we are being lied to in Daniel 12:1. Because Jesus already said this---such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time. But He didn't stop there. He also said this---no, nor ever shall be---which then makes it impossible that Matthew 24:21 is meaning 2000 years ago and Daniel 12:1 is meaning 2000 years later.
What if Jesus had said this instead?
such as was not since there was a nation to this time, no, nor ever shall be
such as never was since there was a nation even to that same time(Daniel 12:1)
Would one still be arguing that these are not involving the same era of time?
Or maybe like this? Where Daniel 12:1 said what Jesus said.
such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be
such as never was since the beginning of the world even to that same time
The point being, what exactly is the difference between--since the beginning of the world(kosmos)---and this---since there was a nation? Even if the beginning of this world precedes the beginning of a nation, still we're talking about the first cpl of thousand years of human history no matter how you look at it. And that Jesus said that nothing in the future will equal nor surpass this great tribulation in greatness. But how can that literally be true if this happens in the future and is not meaning Matthew 24:21---such as never was since there was a nation even to that same time?