Tong2020 said:
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That may be your view, but not in my view. For v. 13 ells us about those people mentioned in v.12 as people who WERE born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.”
Yet, in verse 12, it says that a man receives Christ first, and then is born of God; not the other way around.
No it does not say that.
Remember what God said of fallen man, that every intents of the thoughts of his hearts is evil continually even from his youth. The generation of Noah speaks well and testifies to that truth. What could be expected of the generations after Noah? The answer is obvious and certain. Now, would you expect any of fallen man, without the help and working of God, be able to do the righteous act of genuinely denying himself and surrender all of him to God and obey His will? The answer could be seen in the children of Israel. Realize what God had done to Israel, even showing them with their own eyes what mighty things He can do and that there is no power or authority on earth that could go against His power. He had showed them His faithfulness, power, glory, righteousness, and holiness. But despite all of that He had done for them and have shown to them with their own eyes, they have proven what fallen man is, incapable of freeing himself from the bondage of sin that dwells in his flesh. God sent them the prophet Moses, whom they have witnessed with their own eyes how God work miracles through him, have seen and heard God speak to him, yet they have shown to not able to truly believe and continue believing him. And now you want us to believe that the fallen man, where nothing had changed in them, and even had been hardened, that when Jesus was sent to them, that they later were able to truly believe (receive) Him and continue to believe Him? No sir. Why there were those who were able and said to have received Him, is without question, because of God’s doing and working. This is one of the reasons why I don’t agree with your view. And with all of that, my view is that, unless God change the heart of one fallen man, he could not be able to receive the Word that became flesh, that is, the Son of God, Jesus Christ. And that change is what John speaks about in John 1:13.
It’s not the other way around as you contend, and that could just not be.
Tong2020 said:
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Did Jesus, who knows who are His sheep, said He will give His life and shed <fify> His blood for those who are not His sheep or for His sheep (
John 10). Don’t you believe that everything that God does and say does has a good purpose and does not go back to Him unaccomplished, but fails and wasted? Well,...
Obviously Jesus died for the sins of the whole world and therefore He shed His blood for the sins of the whole world (1 John 2:2) and gave His life as a ransom for all (1 Timothy 2:6). Therefore, if people reject what He did for them, and not all come to faith in Him and receive the effects of the blood so that they are forgiven, was not the blood that was shed for them wasted?
Yet God shed that blood.
It is another reason why rejecting the sacrifice of Jesus is such a heinous sin in God's eyes; for it is spurning the price that He paid for you so that in many cases and for many people, He suffered in vain.
Yes, there are scriptures that says Jesus died for the whole world. But that should not be taken to refer to His death as being a sin offering for the forgiveness of sins of the whole world, but be taken as a sacrifice of atonement. Such an atonement was needed to appease God so that His wrath should not come upon mankind and not destroy them all as He had done at one time in the past. Such was also foreshadowed in the law of Moses where the priest offers a sacrifice for atonement for the sins of Israel continually every year.
Now, the death of Christ was also a sin offering as a sacrifice for the forgiveness of the sins of those whom God had given Him to raise up in the last day, that is, for His sheep, His people, His church. And that is not for the whole world.
Tong2020 said:
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what does “come” to Christ there means?
To "come" to Christ means to come to Him in faith and receive His salvation, as I define it.
That’s good. In other words, the matter of coming to Him is the matter of believing in Him. Now try to bring that in John 6:37,44,45,65 in place of “come to Me” and you will be able to see what Jesus was saying all along.
Tong2020 said:
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For sure it is about being drawn to Christ, but is not the same drawing as that in
John 6:44.
Why wouldn't it be?
I have already explained that in one of my reply post to you.
Tong2020 said:
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Now that is contradictory.
If it is the work of God, it could not be the work of man.
Look at John 6:28. They asked Him, "
What shall we do that we may work the works of God?" To which He answered,
"This is the work of God, that ye believe in Him whom He sent."
Jesus said clearly, “This is the work of God”. What is the work of God could not be the work of man.
Tong
R2042