To the only God our Savior

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Matthias

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When was the book / letter of Jude written?

Let’s use a trinitarian website because, if you read my post #138 , you know why. (Unitarian websites would generally place it the same range but “unitarian” = DOA for trinitarians. There’s zero incentive for me to bring them to the attention of my trinitarian audience.)

Date of Writing: The Book of Jude is closely related to the book of 2 Peter. The date of authorship depends on whether Jude used content from 2 Peter, or Peter used content from Jude when writing 2 Peter. The Book of Jude was written sometime between A.D. 60 and 80.”


I’m willing to accept the given range. Let’s say, just for the sake of discussion, that it was written toward the lower end of the range. I’m going to stick a pin in at A.D. 65. (Tradition - for what we think that’s worth - tells us that Jude was martyred about A.D. 65 in the Roman province of Syria.

How old do we think Jude would have been in A.D. 65? I don’t know. I’m going to go with 70 years old. We can adjust the figure up or down.

One of my favorite Protestant trinitarian scholars is Dr. Harold O.J. Brown (deceased). I didn’t have the opportunity to meet him or correspond with him but the book he wrote for people like me (Heresies: Heresy And Orthodoxy In The History Of The Church) has been very influential in my life.

Dr. Brown writes:

”It is impossible to document what we now call orthodoxy in the first two centuries of Christianity; heresy often appears more predominantly, so much so that orthodoxy looks like a reaction to it. But we can document orthodoxy for all centuries since then - in other words, for close to seventeen centuries of the church’s existence.”

(Heresies, p. 5)

”Orthodoxy” is historical orthodox trinitarianism; Nicene Christianity (though I think that’s a little questionable - Nicea was in AD 325 and that didn’t clearly establish orthodoxy; Constantinople was in 381 and it pretty clearly establishes orthodoxy. Chalcedon in AD 451 brought us the doctrine of the hypostatic union.)

“Heresy” isn’t limited to Jewish monotheism, but it would include it in the minds of trinitarians.

Jude is a Jewish monotheist. He died around AD 65. Being very generous to trinitarianism, let’s say somehow we could pin trinitarianism to AD 200, the beginning of the 3rd century rather than the 4th century. (Historians would be all over me for doing this but I’m exaggerating to make a point.)

Jude dies in AD 65. Trinitarianism begins in AD 200 (wowzer). AD 200 - AD 65 = 135 years.

Jude died at least 135 years (and much more likely 235 years) before trinitarianism arrives on the historical stage.

Jude didn’t know anything about trinitarianism in his lifetime. He lived and died a Jewish monotheist.

”Beloved, while I was making every effort to write you about our common salvation, I felt the need to write to you appealing that you contend earnestly for the faith which was once for all handed down to the saints.”

(Jude 1:3, NASB)

The faith “which was once for all handed down to the saints” Jude is writing about is 1st century Jewish monotheism, his own faith, the Messiah’s faith, all of the apostles’ faith, not historical orthodox trinitarianism. The doctrine of the Trinity was formulated centuries after his / their lifetime, in post-biblical days.
 
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Matthias

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Dr. Michael Brown, a Messianic Jewish scholar, explains that the Hebrew word echad (אֶחָד) translates to "one," similar to the English word. He notes that while echad can denote a singular entity, it is also used in contexts implying a composite unity.

Good morning. I hope you had a good night’s sleep. I’m still working but will be retiring for the night soon.

Echad works exactly like “one” does in English and he’s correct that it can denote a singular entity (my major claim). What he calls “compound unity” I call modifying a collective noun.

You’ve appealed to Dr. Brown. There’s nothing wrong with that. I appeal to him too.

Will you listen to this clip from a segment of his radio call-in show Line of Fire? It’s eight and a half minutes long. It hasn’t been altered in any way and I have no connection whatsoever with the caller he engages in conversation with. I agree with what Dr. Brown said in response to the caller’s question.

 
J

Johann

Guest
Good morning. I hope you had a good night’s sleep. I’m still working but will be retiring for the night soon.

Echad works exactly like “one” does in English and he’s correct that it can denote a singular entity (my major claim). What he calls “compound unity” I call modifying a collective noun.

You’ve appealed to Dr. Brown. There’s nothing wrong with that. I appeal to him too.

Will you listen to this clip from a segment of his radio call-in show Line of Fire? It’s eight and a half minutes long. It hasn’t been altered in any way and I have no connection whatsoever with the caller he engages in conversation with. I agree with what Dr. Brown said in response to the caller’s question.

Please give this a listen as the Logos is NOT an "it"




J.
 

Matthias

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Please give this a listen as the Logos is NOT an "it"




J.

Thanks. I watched it years ago. I was gifted a DVD of the debate by one of the debaters.

The logos is the word of God. 1 John contains John’s commentary on the prologue. I have it in mind to start a thread on it at some point.
 

Matthias

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More trinitarian commentary on Jude 1:25 offered in support of my OP.

“But there is another peculiarity that I would point out in these words, and that is the unusual attribution to God, the Father, of the name ‘Savior’ - ‘the only God our Savior.’ …”

(MacLaren’s Expositions)


Our trinitarian says it’s unusual but he’s able to see that Jude is speaking about the Messiah’s God, the Father.
 

Matthias

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“To the only God” -> The Father. That’s precisely what a Jewish monotheist would say. Jude, a Jewish monotheist, sounds like an echo of Jesus, another Jewish monotheist. The Father is the only God of Jude and of Jesus.
 
J

Johann

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“To the only God” -> The Father. That’s precisely what a Jewish monotheist would say. Jude, a Jewish monotheist, sounds like an echo of Jesus, another Jewish monotheist. The Father is the only God of Jude and of Jesus.
And as Dr. Michael Brown pointed out-you take ONE verse that would appeal to your Jewish monotheism dogma and skip over other passages that clearly points out that Messiah is God. You are very selective in the reading of Scripture @Matthias


Sometimes when talking with Muslims, you may hear the line, “Jesus never said he was God” or “Jesus never said, ‘I am God, worship me.'” There are a lot of valid responses to this comment. Among these is the response: “He didn’t have to!”

I. The Father’s Testimony to the Son

The Father testified to the son, calling him “My beloved son” on at least two occasions (Matthew 3:17; Matthew 17:5; Mark 1:11; Mark 9:7; Luke 3:22; Luke 9:35; and 2 Peter 1:17), namely at his baptism and at his transfiguration.

It is enough for us that the Father called Jesus his Son. That tells us who Jesus is. That’s why Mark’s gospel begins: “The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the son of God” (Mark 1:1).

II. Jesus Calls himself “First and Last” and “Almighty”

But did Jesus claim to be God? Jesus called himself the First and the Last, a title that belongs only to God, as it is recorded in Revelation:

“And when I saw him, I fell at his feet as dead. And he laid his right hand upon me, saying unto me, Fear not; I am the first and the last: I am he that liveth, and was dead; and, behold, I am alive for evermore, Amen; and have the keys of hell and of death.” (Revelation 1:17-18).

We can see from Isaiah that this term is a term that refers specifically to YHWH, Jehovah, the Lord:

Isaiah 41:4 “Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the Lord, the first, and with the last; I am he.”

Isaiah 48:12 “Hearken unto me, O Jacob and Israel, my called; I am he; I am the first, I also am the last.”

Likewise, Jesus calls himself “the Almighty” which is one of God’s titles:


Revelation 1:8 “I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.”

The number of times this title is used of God are too numerous to mention, particularly in the book of Job, but beginning at least as early as the time of Abram:

Genesis 17:1
And when Abram was ninety years old and nine, the LORD appeared to Abram, and said unto him, I am the Almighty God; walk before me, and be thou perfect.

Conclusion

Perhaps a good conclusion would be the words of Jesus in John 8:

John 8:54

Jesus answered, If I honour myself, my honour is nothing: it is my Father that honoureth me; of whom ye say, that he is your God: yet ye have not known him; but I know him: and if I should say, I know him not, I shall be a liar like unto you: but I know him, and keep his saying. Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw it, and was glad.

Then said the Jews unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou seen Abraham?
Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.
Then took they up stones to cast at him: but Jesus hid himself, and went out of the temple, going through the midst of them, and so passed by.

There are reasons that Jesus did not constantly announce his divinity, both because he came in humility and because when he did announce his divinity (by calling God his Father, by calling himself “I am” (“And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.” Exodus 3:14), and by saying that he was older than Abraham.

Moreover, there is an additional testimony to Jesus’ divinity here. When the Jews picked up stones to stone him, Jesus hid himself and passed through their midst. Would God allow a blasphemer to escape judgment in this miraculous way?

But if Jesus was not a blasphemer as the Jews accused him of being, then he was who he said he was: “I AM” who was before Abraham, the Son of God.

Thus we testify that Jesus is the Son of God. It is plainly stated numerous times in the gospels. The Father’s testimony to the Son is enough for us, because the Father is God. Moreover, Jesus himself did claim divinity: he did so in a variety of ways, both during his time on earth and in his Revelation to John.

May the one Lord receive us to himself according to his mercy and his great love,

-TurretinFan

There is a frequent assumption that unbelievers have about the Trinity. But if you are aware of this deep assumption by those who deny the deity of Christ, you can disarm them. James White has said:

Difference in function does not indicate inferiority of nature.

There is a built-in assumption for many that if Jesus possesses a lesser role than the Father, he must therefore posses a lesser nature. This is not a valid inference. Those who oppose the deity of Christ point to Jesus’ submissive remarks about doing the will of his Father.

For example, Jesus says, “the Father is greater than I am.” They infer from this that Jesus does not share the same nature with the Father. This ignores that the context is talking about their relational roles, not their nature, John 14. Jesus also calls the Father, “My God.”

Yet those who oppose the deity of Christ ignore that this is a humble acknowledgment of the incarnate Jesus, modeling for us humility and submissiveness (John 20:17). This exalting affirmation is what we would expect from the Son of God.

Similarly, it is argued, since Jesus is the agent of the Father in many respects such as creation, Jesus cannot be fully God. Regarding the Spirit, they will make the similar false assumption: Since the Spirit is sent by the Father, the Spirit cannot have the same divine nature as the Father. They will look at these statements and make the fallacious leap that difference in function indicates inferiority of nature.

By doing committing this fallacy, they also deny the freedom of the Divine persons to choose their roles. Or to put it another way: they assume that to be truly God, the Son and the Spirit must have the exact same roles as the Father. Do not allow them to accept this assumption.

A simple, but effective, illustration will show that difference in function does not indicate inferiority of nature: A husband and wife will have different roles in a marriage. Wives are to take on the submissive role, but this does not indicate that difference in function requires inferiority of nature. Does the wife have a lesser nature than that of the husband? Not according to Christian anthropology. They both are fully human.

Let’s praise God for the incarnation, which itself presupposes a submissive role that brought about our salvation. We do not worship a unipersonal-unitarian God, but instead a complementary-trinitarian God.

J.
 

Matthias

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And as Dr. Michael Brown pointed out-you take ONE verse that would appeal to your Jewish monotheism dogma and skip over other passages that clearly points out that Messiah is God. You are very selective in the reading of Scripture @Matthias


Sometimes when talking with Muslims, you may hear the line, “Jesus never said he was God” or “Jesus never said, ‘I am God, worship me.'” There are a lot of valid responses to this comment. Among these is the response: “He didn’t have to!”

I. The Father’s Testimony to the Son

The Father testified to the son, calling him “My beloved son” on at least two occasions (Matthew 3:17; Matthew 17:5; Mark 1:11; Mark 9:7; Luke 3:22; Luke 9:35; and 2 Peter 1:17), namely at his baptism and at his transfiguration.

It is enough for us that the Father called Jesus his Son. That tells us who Jesus is. That’s why Mark’s gospel begins: “The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the son of God” (Mark 1:1).

II. Jesus Calls himself “First and Last” and “Almighty”

But did Jesus claim to be God? Jesus called himself the First and the Last, a title that belongs only to God, as it is recorded in Revelation:

“And when I saw him, I fell at his feet as dead. And he laid his right hand upon me, saying unto me, Fear not; I am the first and the last: I am he that liveth, and was dead; and, behold, I am alive for evermore, Amen; and have the keys of hell and of death.” (Revelation 1:17-18).

We can see from Isaiah that this term is a term that refers specifically to YHWH, Jehovah, the Lord:

Isaiah 41:4 “Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the Lord, the first, and with the last; I am he.”

Isaiah 48:12 “Hearken unto me, O Jacob and Israel, my called; I am he; I am the first, I also am the last.”

Likewise, Jesus calls himself “the Almighty” which is one of God’s titles:


Revelation 1:8 “I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.”

The number of times this title is used of God are too numerous to mention, particularly in the book of Job, but beginning at least as early as the time of Abram:

Genesis 17:1
And when Abram was ninety years old and nine, the LORD appeared to Abram, and said unto him, I am the Almighty God; walk before me, and be thou perfect.

Conclusion

Perhaps a good conclusion would be the words of Jesus in John 8:

John 8:54

Jesus answered, If I honour myself, my honour is nothing: it is my Father that honoureth me; of whom ye say, that he is your God: yet ye have not known him; but I know him: and if I should say, I know him not, I shall be a liar like unto you: but I know him, and keep his saying. Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw it, and was glad.

Then said the Jews unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou seen Abraham?
Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.
Then took they up stones to cast at him: but Jesus hid himself, and went out of the temple, going through the midst of them, and so passed by.

There are reasons that Jesus did not constantly announce his divinity, both because he came in humility and because when he did announce his divinity (by calling God his Father, by calling himself “I am” (“And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.” Exodus 3:14), and by saying that he was older than Abraham.

Moreover, there is an additional testimony to Jesus’ divinity here. When the Jews picked up stones to stone him, Jesus hid himself and passed through their midst. Would God allow a blasphemer to escape judgment in this miraculous way?

But if Jesus was not a blasphemer as the Jews accused him of being, then he was who he said he was: “I AM” who was before Abraham, the Son of God.

Thus we testify that Jesus is the Son of God. It is plainly stated numerous times in the gospels. The Father’s testimony to the Son is enough for us, because the Father is God. Moreover, Jesus himself did claim divinity: he did so in a variety of ways, both during his time on earth and in his Revelation to John.

May the one Lord receive us to himself according to his mercy and his great love,

-TurretinFan

There is a frequent assumption that unbelievers have about the Trinity. But if you are aware of this deep assumption by those who deny the deity of Christ, you can disarm them. James White has said:

Difference in function does not indicate inferiority of nature.

There is a built-in assumption for many that if Jesus possesses a lesser role than the Father, he must therefore posses a lesser nature. This is not a valid inference. Those who oppose the deity of Christ point to Jesus’ submissive remarks about doing the will of his Father.

For example, Jesus says, “the Father is greater than I am.” They infer from this that Jesus does not share the same nature with the Father. This ignores that the context is talking about their relational roles, not their nature, John 14. Jesus also calls the Father, “My God.”

Yet those who oppose the deity of Christ ignore that this is a humble acknowledgment of the incarnate Jesus, modeling for us humility and submissiveness (John 20:17). This exalting affirmation is what we would expect from the Son of God.

Similarly, it is argued, since Jesus is the agent of the Father in many respects such as creation, Jesus cannot be fully God. Regarding the Spirit, they will make the similar false assumption: Since the Spirit is sent by the Father, the Spirit cannot have the same divine nature as the Father. They will look at these statements and make the fallacious leap that difference in function indicates inferiority of nature.

By doing committing this fallacy, they also deny the freedom of the Divine persons to choose their roles. Or to put it another way: they assume that to be truly God, the Son and the Spirit must have the exact same roles as the Father. Do not allow them to accept this assumption.

A simple, but effective, illustration will show that difference in function does not indicate inferiority of nature: A husband and wife will have different roles in a marriage. Wives are to take on the submissive role, but this does not indicate that difference in function requires inferiority of nature. Does the wife have a lesser nature than that of the husband? Not according to Christian anthropology. They both are fully human.

Let’s praise God for the incarnation, which itself presupposes a submissive role that brought about our salvation. We do not worship a unipersonal-unitarian God, but instead a complementary-trinitarian God.

J.

When you open with a false accusation nothing you say after that is going to be paid any attention to. Read the Catholic Battle Plan, and learn from it.

As for Dr. Brown, I appealed to him in post #142 because he supports my position against you.
 

Matthias

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To my readers. I don’t “skip over other passages” - I don’t skip over any passages - and I’m not “very selective in my reading of Scripture.”

Jesus himself is a Jewish monotheist.

All scripture supports Jewish monotheism. All scripture supports Jesus of Nazareth, the Messiah, the Son of the living God.
 

APAK

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Please give this a listen as the Logos is NOT an "it"




J.
Hardly, this Dr Brown is more of a showman and opportunist than a serious student of scripture. He fakes his arguments to sound important. And his Trini-colleague speaks with many assumptions and regards incarnation and the trinity as fact really not to be debated. Neither of the Trinitarians recognize or use local and wider context in their understanding of scripture either. They are amateurs. I was stunned by all this..

Buzzard mopped the floor...hands-down more understandable and logical. Knew his stuff...and yes, he also said that the word is and always is an 'it.' And the Son possessed it by the time he was born (John 1:14). The it was always the Father's who is the only one God of one essence.
 

APAK

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And as Dr. Michael Brown pointed out-you take ONE verse that would appeal to your Jewish monotheism dogma and skip over other passages that clearly points out that Messiah is God. You are very selective in the reading of Scripture @Matthias




II. Jesus Calls himself “First and Last” and “Almighty”


But did Jesus claim to be God? Jesus called himself the First and the Last, a title that belongs only to God, as it is recorded in Revelation:

“And when I saw him, I fell at his feet as dead. And he laid his right hand upon me, saying unto me, Fear not; I am the first and the last: I am he that liveth, and was dead; and, behold, I am alive for evermore, Amen; and have the keys of hell and of death.” (Revelation 1:17-18).

We can see from Isaiah that this term is a term that refers specifically to YHWH, Jehovah, the Lord:
I would not keep embarrassing myself if I were you.

Just look as one point you made that was not really a valid point. It was an ignorant non-point and made even by many Trinitarian laymen and scholars alike.

// you wrote J.
II. Jesus Calls himself “First and Last” and “Almighty”//

And let's keep off the lie that Jesus called himself 'Almighty' at this point. This is about the former expression only.

Now this expression is used by both the Father and the Son in scripture, although others of no reputation could have uses it as well, even myself. It just seems as though these expressions are only used for God and his Son, and therefore are extra special. Yes, the events surrounding the expressions are truly special.

What does 'the First and the Last' really mean or 'the alpha and omega' without attaching God or his Son to these expressions?

It is simple, it means that one and only one, and no other one, I mean no other person can be called either or both of these expressions, only me, or this one person FOR this event or action etc. These expressions are not roaming uneventful expression that some call (special) titles if you wish. They MUST apply to something, event, etc.

In the Book of Revelation, Jesus calls him the first and the last as he died and was resurrected, the first born from the dead.

Yes, there is no one that can consequently imitate or equal this feat, made possible by his Father's power. He is the only one, the first and the last. And yest God, his Father can also say he is 'the first and last' in this event because no one else could have caused his Son's resurrection to immortality. Both can wear the same expression for two different angles of this same event.

No I can also wear this godly expression used in scripture of the 'first and the last' for an obscure personal event of no consequence, as the first generation of my Father's name in the US, besides one of his uncle's that arrived in Chicago in the 1890s. I am the only one, and no one else can copy this feat.....
 

Matthias

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Adonai (אֲדֹנָי)
Meaning: "My Lord" or "The Lord."

Where exactly in the Hebrew Bible do you find Adonai meaning and translated in English ”My Lord”? How many occurrences? Specially, which verses?
 

Matthias

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“to the only God our Savior, through Jesus Christ our Lord, be glory, majesty, dominion and authority, before all time and now and forever. Amen.”

(Jude 1:25, NASB)

Who is “the only God our Savior” in this verse?

Is it not one person, the Father, who Jude has in mind here?

Is it not Yahweh, the God and Father of Jesus Messiah, who saves us through the Messiah our lord (Psalm 110:1)?

“The only God our Savior” of Jude 1:25 is the God of John 3:16

”For this is the way God loved the world: He gave his one and only Son, so that everyone who believes in him will not perish but have eternal life.”

(NET)

“For this is the way [the Father] loved the world: [the Father] gave his one and only Son, so that everyone who believes in him will not perish but have eternal life.”

John is a Jewish monotheist. “God” is only one person for a Jewish monotheist, the Father, the heavenly Father, Yahweh.

”The word ‘God’ had a very specific meaning in early Judaism. It meant Yahweh. And Jesus wasn’t, and isn’t, Yahweh. Put another way, he’s not the heavenly Father. He’s someone other than the heavenly Father.“ - Ben Witherington, III

For this is the way [God, Yahweh, the heavenly Father] loved the world: [God, Yahweh, the heavenly Father] gave his one and only Son [who wasn’t and isn’t Yahweh] so that everyone who believes in him will not perish but have eternal life.

Jewish monotheism, not trinitarianism.
 

Matthias

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”It is recognized that in the Deuteronomic-covenantal-prophetic traditions, Israel’s obligation is to listen as the sovereign Yahweh, through many interpreters, issues commands: ‘Hear, O Israel: The Lord is our God, the Lord alone’ (Deut 6:4). Thus one aspect of Israel’s obligation is to hear and to respond by doing (cf. Exod 24:3,7).

(Walter Brueggemann, Theology of the Old Testament, p. 421)


“Jesus wasn’t, and isn’t Yahweh. Put another way, he isn’t the heavenly Father. He’s somone other than the heavenly Father.” - Ben Witherington, III

The God of the Shema is Yahweh, the heavenly Father. Yahweh alone.

Yahweh is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.

Yahweh is the God of Moses.

Yahweh is the God and Father of Jesus.

Jesus went to Yahweh when he ascended into heaven.

Jesus went to his Father, and the Father of his disciples / my Father, when he ascended into heaven.

Jesus went to his God, and the God of his disciples / my God, when he ascended into heaven.

Strict Jewish monotheism.
 

Matthias

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Trinitarianism -> Jesus is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, or The Trinity is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.

Jewish monotheism -> Yahweh is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, or The Father is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.

Trinitarianism -> Jesus is the God of Moses, or The Trinity is the God of Moses.

Jewish monotheism -> Yahweh is the God of Moses, or The Father is the God of Moses.

Trinitarianism -> The Father is the God of Jesus.

Jewish monotheism -> Yahweh is the God and Father of Jesus.

Trinitarianism -> Our God is the Trinity, or Our God is Jesus.

Jewish monotheism -> Our God is Yahweh, or Our God is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, or Our God is the God of Moses, or Our God is the Father alone, or Our God is the God of Jesus, or Our God is the Father of Jesus, or Our God is the God and Father of our lord Jesus Messiah, or Our God is the one true God.
 
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Matthias

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“[God] has many names, El and Elohim, Shaddai and Adonai, but His proper name is Yahweh …”

(Edmund J. Fortman, The Triune God: A Historical Study of the Doctrine of the Trinity, p. 3)

Fortman (now deceased) is speaking here not about the Trinity but about the Old Testament witness to God.

”Jesus wasn’t, and isn’t, Yahweh.“ - Ben Witherington, III

 

Matthias

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When was the book / letter of Jude written?

Let’s use a trinitarian website because, if you read my post #138 , you know why. (Unitarian websites would generally place it the same range but “unitarian” = DOA for trinitarians. There’s zero incentive for me to bring them to the attention of my trinitarian audience.)

Date of Writing: The Book of Jude is closely related to the book of 2 Peter. The date of authorship depends on whether Jude used content from 2 Peter, or Peter used content from Jude when writing 2 Peter. The Book of Jude was written sometime between A.D. 60 and 80.”


I’m willing to accept the given range. Let’s say, just for the sake of discussion, that it was written toward the lower end of the range. I’m going to stick a pin in at A.D. 65. (Tradition - for what we think that’s worth - tells us that Jude was martyred about A.D. 65 in the Roman province of Syria.

How old do we think Jude would have been in A.D. 65? I don’t know. I’m going to go with 70 years old. We can adjust the figure up or down.

One of my favorite Protestant trinitarian scholars is Dr. Harold O.J. Brown (deceased). I didn’t have the opportunity to meet him or correspond with him but the book he wrote for people like me (Heresies: Heresy And Orthodoxy In The History Of The Church) has been very influential in my life.

Dr. Brown writes:

”It is impossible to document what we now call orthodoxy in the first two centuries of Christianity; heresy often appears more predominantly, so much so that orthodoxy looks like a reaction to it. But we can document orthodoxy for all centuries since then - in other words, for close to seventeen centuries of the church’s existence.”

(Heresies, p. 5)

”Orthodoxy” is historical orthodox trinitarianism; Nicene Christianity (though I think that’s a little questionable - Nicea was in AD 325 and that didn’t clearly establish orthodoxy; Constantinople was in 381 and it pretty clearly establishes orthodoxy. Chalcedon in AD 451 brought us the doctrine of the hypostatic union.)

“Heresy” isn’t limited to Jewish monotheism, but it would include it in the minds of trinitarians.

Jude is a Jewish monotheist. He died around AD 65. Being very generous to trinitarianism, let’s say somehow we could pin trinitarianism to AD 200, the beginning of the 3rd century rather than the 4th century. (Historians would be all over me for doing this but I’m exaggerating to make a point.)

Jude dies in AD 65. Trinitarianism begins in AD 200 (wowzer). AD 200 - AD 65 = 135 years.

Jude died at least 135 years (and much more likely 235 years) before trinitarianism arrives on the historical stage.

Jude didn’t know anything about trinitarianism in his lifetime. He lived and died a Jewish monotheist.

”Beloved, while I was making every effort to write you about our common salvation, I felt the need to write to you appealing that you contend earnestly for the faith which was once for all handed down to the saints.”

(Jude 1:3, NASB)

The faith “which was once for all handed down to the saints” Jude is writing about is 1st century Jewish monotheism, his own faith, the Messiah’s faith, all of the apostles’ faith, not historical orthodox trinitarianism. The doctrine of the Trinity was formulated centuries after his / their lifetime, in post-biblical days.

“… [the Church] started at Nicaea to formulate the doctrine of the Trinity.”

(Edmund J. Fortman, The Triune God, p. xxiv)

Started. In AD 325 the Church started to formulate the doctrine of the Trinity.

The Church didn’t complete the formulation of the doctrine in 325.

In 325 there aren’t yet any orthodox trinitarians, but we’re getting close. (AD 381 is the date which everyone interested in the doctrine of the Trinity should know.)

My extreme location of orthodoxy in AD 200 was to illustrate that even under the absolute best (though totally unrealistic) scenario for the appearance of the doctrine in history would still be long after the life of Jude had come to an end. Jude lived and died without having any knowledge of the doctrine of the Trinity.

***

“Jude the trinitarian” is a fiction.

”Jude the Jewish monotheist” is an historical person.

***

Jude wasn’t without doctrine though. His doctrine is the Messiah’s doctrine.
 
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