Ain't that the truthWell, 1 Corinthians chapter 12 refers to them as body parts.
Many want to make the church an amputee.
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Ain't that the truthWell, 1 Corinthians chapter 12 refers to them as body parts.
Many want to make the church an amputee.
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So, if we don't speak with tongues, we don't speak with the spirit to God, but only with the carnal mind.That's good. Chapter 14 also say this.
1 Corinthians 14:2 NIV
For anyone who speaks in a tongue[a] does not speak to people but to God. ...
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I wouldn't go that far with it.So, if we don't speak with tongues, we don't speak with the spirit to God, but only with the carnal mind.
Ok....In a previous topic we explored why the baptized believers in Samaria hadn't received the Holy Spirit.
Why hadn't the baptized believers in Samaria received the Holy Spirit?
The typical response to the question about the initial evidence of the Baptism with the Holy Spirit, is tongues.
But when I read the book of the Acts of the Apostles, I see it is not limited to tongues.
I conclude that any manifestation of the Holy Spirit could be the initial evidence.
Would you limit the initial evidence to speaking in tongues?
Here are the scriptures that led to my conclusions on this.
Acts 10:46 NIV
For they heard them speaking in tongues[a] and praising God. ...
Acts 19:6 NIV
When Paul placed his hands on them, the Holy Spirit came on them,
and they spoke in tongues[a] and prophesied.
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Let me show you..
Peter preached, under the anointing of the Holy Spirit.. in Acts 2 (Pentecost).
All those in the Upper Room , including Peter, had received a Gift of the Spirit.
That is Acts 2 :2-3-4
In verse 6, you read that people who were of other languages.. "Heard".... the gift of the Spirit (tongues) that were coming from all those in Acts 2 2-4.
They said this...
....................7 And they were all amazed and marvelled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galilaeans?
8 And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?
9 Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites, and the dwellers in Mesopotamia, and in Judaea, and Cappadocia, in Pontus, and Asia,
10 Phrygia, and Pamphylia, in Egypt, and in the parts of Libya about Cyrene, and strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes,
11 Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God....................
So, these are the same who heard Peter preach .... So, Acts 2:38 is the resolution, more or less, of Peter's entire message give in "tongues" that they could understand.
So, if we don't speak with tongues, we don't speak with the spirit to God, but only with the carnal mind.
Honestly I think you are quite wrong on this...
We are all well aware of the verses -
Firstly at pentecost when the Spirit Baptised them in Himself they were individually given the ability to praise and worship in another language which was recognised by different pilgrims as their native tongue.
Peter didnt praise and worship.
He told the Jews.. (Using the gift of Tongues).........>"you have slain your Messiah"....
So, Does that sound like "praise and worship" to you @Carl Emerson
And the Jews said...>>"what must we do"..........and Peter Said....>>"Repent and be baptized"...
I love it when non-tongue-speakers try to tell tongue-speakers how it should be done. Say what?.
According to Acts 2:4-11, tongues are supposed to be real-life foreign
languages
"How hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?"
The reason given for that is because it enables missionaries to share the
word of God with people in other lands.
"We do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God."
Paul explained in 1Cor 14:20 that Christians infatuated with tongues for
tongues' sake are immature and need to grow up.
"Brothers, stop thinking like children. In regard to evil be infants, but in your
thinking be adults."
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He did not speak in multiple languages, or need to, as the common Greek trade language was understood by all.
They did not understand Peter, exactly as those in the upper room, naturally understood Peter.
Peter was WITH those in the Upper Room.. so, they all spoke the same Language..
That means that when those who were amazed and heard those in speaking with tongues, in their Language, .... they are saying that the upper room normal language, spoken by the all... would not have been understood.
Like this..
How can these who dont speak our language.......now speak our language and PETER's Language was the same as those he was with in the upper room, as they were all TOGETHER.... "of one accord" the verse says.
Notice this specifically...
"""And they were all amazed and marvelled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galilaeans"????
Now.. where did Peter fish?
Where did Jesus find Peter?
"Sea of Galilee".
Peter was a Galilaen., which means He had to have the same GIFT, that those Galilaeans who were "speaking"......in Tongues, or the same who understood them... would not have understood Peter.
I think there is reasonable evidence to conclude that Pentecost did not happen in the upper room.Peter was WITH those in the Upper Room..
Short commentary for you.I think there is reasonable evidence to conclude that Pentecost did not happen in the upper room.
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Thanks.Short commentary for you.
Most Christians assume that it took place in the upper room where the disciples had been staying. However, a closer look at the Text and some research into the historical setting of the Feast of Pentecost provides strong proof that the events of Pentecost actually took place in an entirely different location
Where did Pentecost happen in the Bible?
It commemorates the descent of the Holy Spirit on the Apostles and other followers of Jesus Christ while they were in Jerusalemcelebrating the Feast of Weeks.
I think there is reasonable evidence to conclude that Pentecost did not happen in the upper room.
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Explain the logistics.The reason that The Bible explains that its the upper room, is because that is where the Apostles had been staying... prior.
The thing is I don't know what the AOG or Jimmy Swaggart doctrines are about the gifts of the Spirit. I wasn't raised Pentecostal. All I know about tongues I learned directly from God. I would ask questions in prayer and most of the time, early in the morning as I was waking up the answer would enter my mind. When I was having trouble understanding how the 3,000 Jews understood the tongues as if they were hearing there own languages, the next morning as I was waking up I heard "interpretation." And with it that this was supernatural hearing by God and the gift of interpretation of tongues. It was further proved to be supernatural because this was not the norm. The 3,000 Jews were not Christians yet. But then it happened at the church I was attending. A teenager understood the tongues being prayed over her. Later she told them she only heard English, but tongues were all that was spoken which if it had been English that was odd as they all spoke English and they were praying in tongues. This was special, but fully permissible as the gifts belong to the Holy Spirit to do with as He wishes. But on the other hand we do have rules such as 1 Cor. 14:2 that explains that tongues are not for the purpose of preaching to foreigners as I've been told some Pentecostals believe. I don't believe that. I believe the two types of tongues from Mark 16 and 1 Cor. 12 are first for our individual private prayer life TO GOD, and receiving messages FROM GOD, from 1 Cor. 12 and 14:6 to the church.Yes, that is what i showed you, because you stated that this requires an "interpreter".
So, it does not., and i explained that your "old Assembly of God" theology, is not of the Bible.
Its nonsense.
its that Jimmy Swaggart baloney "infilling" theology ... that the AOG denomination puts out to keep their sheep deceived.
Its False.
I except your testimony. I will not limit the Holy Spirit of God.And with it that this was supernatural hearing by God and the gift of interpretation of tongues.