The Atonement: What did it REALLY Accomplish?

[Rightglory]

Its all correct, His death converts to God, it effects all spiritual blessings that is needed for that Great end.

You use the word "converts" yet scripture never uses that word in this context. His death redeemed, reconciled, justified, but never converts.
I cited several texts that address this very point. You choose not to address them because they all deny your view.

 

[brightfame52]

Did Christ's Death succeed its purpose ? 2

That He might bring us to God ! 1 Pet 3:18

For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit:

This is ones subjective Reconciliation to God by way of Faith and Repentance ; or its our conversion to God. For this was a important purpose, intention for God giving His Son to die for those He died for, for if we be True Believers; That is by His Death or His once suffering for our sins, that this would result in our conversion to God !

Now if all for whom He suffered for their sins, are not as a result of that, converted to God, then His Death or Suffering for them failed its God given Purpose ! This bringing us to God or subjective reconciliation is effected because Christ through His Death did make Satisfaction for our sins, bearing the full penalty of the broken law for us as our Representative !

 

[Rightglory]

Did Christ's Death succeed its purpose ? 2

That He might bring us to God ! 1 Pet 3:18

For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit:

This is ones subjective Reconciliation to God by way of Faith and Repentance ; or its our conversion to God. For this was a important purpose, intention for God giving His Son to die for those He died for, for if we be True Believers; That is by His Death or His once suffering for our sins, that this would result in our conversion to God !

Christ's work was not subjective, meaning it had to do with believers. It had all to do with Christ reconciling, redeeming, justifying the WORLD TO GOD. Col 1:20, Rom 5:8, Rom 5:18-19, II Cor 5:18-19, I Cor 15:20-22, II Tim 1:10, Heb 2:14-15, Heb 2:9, I John 2:2. II Cor 5:14-15.

The verse very clearly states that it was for the unjust. Who are the unjust? You seem to think they are believers. If so, then anyone who is not a believer has already been just and does not need Christ. This, theologically, means that Christ did absolutely nothing for anyone. All men are sinners, Rom 5:8-11 makes this universal claim as well. And we know that Christ was "quickened" made alive, rose from the dead by the Holy Spirit. This whole string of events is stated in Eph 2:1-9 also. Vs 5 very specifically is speaking about Christ' work and being made alive, which means being raised from the dead, so that we might be also raised from the dead.

You confuse the use of personal pronouns when Paul is speaking to believers as if it only applies to believers These texts point this out clearly Heb 2:9, I John 2:2,. This past tense use of "saved"{ applies to all men, since all men will be raised in the last day. It is an accomplished fact. However the journey of a believer is NEVER finite in this world, thus can never be "saved" since that is past tense. He is being saved during his lifespan.

Now if all for whom He suffered for their sins, are not as a result of that, converted to God, then His Death or Suffering for them failed its God given Purpose ! This bringing us to God or subjective reconciliation is effected because Christ through His Death did make Satisfaction for our sins, bearing the full penalty of the broken law for us as our Representative !

This is why your theory is incorrect. Christ's work is NOT subjective but objective. It is a done deal. Man cannot effect it, nor affect it, change, in any shape or form. However, man's subjective salvation through faith is an individual response to Christ's work. Christ was in this world to reconcile the WORLD to God. Has nothing to do with bringing believers to God. That actually won't happen until the judgement is complete when Christ, who is the Judge, will present His bride, the Church, to God.

Secondly, Christ was NOT our representative. He was US. He assumed our humanity. We are all universally the same in our human nature. So, if Christ did not save the world from death by His resurrection,, mankind from death then no one is saved from death and ones faith is in vain. I Cor 15:15-18. You seem to think that Christ had the name written on His Body on the Cross, so that when He died, only those names written on His Body would be affected by that death. You essentially deny His Human Nature and what He actually accomplished.

 

[brightfame52]

Christ's work was not subjective, meaning it had to do with believers. It had all to do with Christ reconciling, redeeming, justifying the WORLD TO GOD. Col 1:20, Rom 5:8, Rom 5:18-19, II Cor 5:18-19, I Cor 15:20-22, II Tim 1:10, Heb 2:14-15, Heb 2:9, I John 2:2. II Cor 5:14-15.

The verse very clearly states that it was for the unjust. Who are the unjust? You seem to think they are believers. If so, then anyone who is not a believer has already been just and does not need Christ. This, theologically, means that Christ did absolutely nothing for anyone. All men are sinners, Rom 5:8-11 makes this universal claim as well. And we know that Christ was "quickened" made alive, rose from the dead by the Holy Spirit. This whole string of events is stated in Eph 2:1-9 also. Vs 5 very specifically is speaking about Christ' work and being made alive, which means being raised from the dead, so that we might be also raised from the dead.

You confuse the use of personal pronouns when Paul is speaking to believers as if it only applies to believers These texts point this out clearly Heb 2:9, I John 2:2,. This past tense use of "saved"{ applies to all men, since all men will be raised in the last day. It is an accomplished fact. However the journey of a believer is NEVER finite in this world, thus can never be "saved" since that is past tense. He is being saved during his lifespan.

This is why your theory is incorrect. Christ's work is NOT subjective but objective. It is a done deal. Man cannot effect it, nor affect it, change, in any shape or form. However, man's subjective salvation through faith is an individual response to Christ's work. Christ was in this world to reconcile the WORLD to God. Has nothing to do with bringing believers to God. That actually won't happen until the judgement is complete when Christ, who is the Judge, will present His bride, the Church, to God.

Secondly, Christ was NOT our representative. He was US. He assumed our humanity. We are all universally the same in our human nature. So, if Christ did not save the world from death by His resurrection,, mankind from death then no one is saved from death and ones faith is in vain. I Cor 15:15-18. You seem to think that Christ had the name written on His Body on the Cross, so that when He died, only those names written on His Body would be affected by that death. You essentially deny His Human Nature and what He actually accomplished.

You being a adversary to the efficacious saving death of Christ. !

 

[Rightglory]

You being a adversary to the efficacious saving death of Christ. !

Quite the opposite. In denying the resurrection of the dead through Christ's redemptive work makes your faith in vain, because man will never be raised from the dead. There will be no judgement, There cannot even be a new heaven and earth which happens because He reconciled the world to God.

Here are two texts that show this universal work of Christ comparted to the individual response of man to His work.
Col 1: 20. it cannot be more explicit, emphatic that Christ reconciled the world, all things, in heaven and on earth. Then go to John 6:38-40. - What was the will of the Father? What was given to Him? What did Christ do? Did He lose any? That is a direct reference to Col 1:20 which is mankind the world, all things. Now vs40 Why did He do this? So that those who see Him and believe will be saved in the last day.-
Another text which denies your view, John 5:29. as well as John 3:16-17

How efficacious is Christ saving the world from death and sin. so that you as human being condemned to death through Adam, might be able to have a present relationship now and an eternal one in the future. Theologically, the huge limitation you put on His efficacy makes it null and void. Make sure you read I Cor 15::17-18. very carefully,

 

[brightfame52]

Quite the opposite. In denying the resurrection of the dead through Christ's redemptive work makes your faith in vain, because man will never be raised from the dead. There will be no judgement, There cannot even be a new heaven and earth which happens because He reconciled the world to God.

Here are two texts that show this universal work of Christ comparted to the individual response of man to His work.
Col 1: 20. it cannot be more explicit, emphatic that Christ reconciled the world, all things, in heaven and on earth. Then go to John 6:38-40. - What was the will of the Father? What was given to Him? What did Christ do? Did He lose any? That is a direct reference to Col 1:20 which is mankind the world, all things. Now vs40 Why did He do this? So that those who see Him and believe will be saved in the last day.-
Another text which denies your view, John 5:29. as well as John 3:16-17

How efficacious is Christ saving the world from death and sin. so that you as human being condemned to death through Adam, might be able to have a present relationship now and an eternal one in the future. Theologically, the huge limitation you put on His efficacy makes it null and void. Make sure you read I Cor 15::17-18. very carefully,

Sure you being an adversary against the saving death of Christ.

 

[Rightglory]

Sure you being an adversary against the saving death of Christ.

So, you have no response. This response shows you cannot refute the scripture cited.
If you are correct why can you not produce the evidence that I am incorrect? Respond to the texts given. Show that I am incorrect.

 

[brightfame52]

So, you have no response. This response shows you cannot refute the scripture cited.
If you are correct why can you not produce the evidence that I am incorrect? Respond to the texts given. Show that I am incorrect.

I responded.

 

[Rightglory]

I responded.

Yes you did, As well as you cannot address the texts. Now we know.

 

[brightfame52]

Did Christ's Death succeed its purpose ? 3

More scripture giving the purpose and results of Christ's Death, that those He died for will serve Him ! 2 Cor 5:14-15

14 For the love of Christ constraineth us; because we thus judge, that if one died for all, then were all dead:

15 And that he died for all, that they which live should not henceforth live unto themselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again.

Remember the words of the Psalmist Ps 22:30

A seed shall serve him; it shall be accounted to the Lord for a generation.

That word serve means :

to cause to serve as subjects

to labour, work, do work

2) to work for another, serve another by labour

3) to serve as subjects

4) to serve (God)

to compel to labour or work, cause to labour, cause to serve


And Jesus said Jn 12:26

If any man serve me, let him follow me; and where I am, there shall also my servant be: if any man serve me, him will my Father honour.

Now that any man[who serves] will be of that seed Ps 22:30

A seed shall serve him; it shall be accounted to the Lord for a generation.

That word seed means:

offspring, descendants as in Isa 53:10

10 Yet it pleased the Lord to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the Lord shall prosper in his hand.

That seed is all for whom He died or whom His soul was made an offering for sin for !


And Paul writes 2 Cor 5:14-15

14 For the love of Christ constraineth us; because we thus judge, that if one died for all, then were all dead:

15 And that he died for all, that they which live should not henceforth live unto themselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again.

The Apostle perceives the Love of Christ, which moved Him to give Himself for His Body the Church [His Seed] Eph 5:25, and that He died for all [The Seed], and the All He died for, died [judicially] with Him, and so they were as He was, all dead. Purpose being:

That we which live, the we being, the all that died with Him, should not live unto themselves in the flesh, as servants of sin, but unto Him that died for them [ Christ their Surety] !

Paul here just described the fruit of Christ's Death, it produces servants for Him. The same exact thing is taught in Titus 2:14, the end of His Redemptive Death produces a People zealous of Good Works ! 11

 

[Rightglory]

Did Christ's Death succeed its purpose ? 3

More scripture giving the purpose and results of Christ's Death, that those He died for will serve Him ! 2 Cor 5:14-15

14 For the love of Christ constraineth us; because we thus judge, that if one died for all, then were all dead:

15 And that he died for all, that they which live should not henceforth live unto themselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again.

thanks for the texts that support what scripture actually says.
Christ died for all men. because all men were dead. I John 2:2, Heb 2:9, I Cor 15:53, all those dead will be raised incorruptible and immortal.
Now, those that live should live unto God. In other words, He desires that all men live unto Him, Nowhere dies it say that the Holy Spirit is doing this living unto God for man. It is man's responsibility. However, sadly most of those for whom He died will not live unto God.

Remember the words of the Psalmist Ps 22:30

A seed shall serve him; it shall be accounted to the Lord for a generation.

That word serve means :

to cause to serve as subjects

to labour, work, do work

2) to work for another, serve another by labour

3) to serve as subjects

4) to serve (God)

to compel to labour or work, cause to labour, cause to serve


And Jesus said Jn 12:26

If any man serve me, let him follow me; and where I am, there shall also my servant be: if any man serve me, him will my Father honour.

Where does it say that the Holy Spirit is forcing man to serve here. The whole context is being directed at those who believe. Man gets the honor, not the Holy Spirit.

Now that any man[who serves] will be of that seed Ps 22:30

A seed shall serve him; it shall be accounted to the Lord for a generation.

That word seed means:

offspring, descendants as in Isa 53:10

10 Yet it pleased the Lord to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the Lord shall prosper in his hand.

That seed is all for whom He died or whom His soul was made an offering for sin for !

Which is every single human being that has been born, and everyone that will come before He comes. I John 2:2.
So, we see Christ died for all, as well as His blood was a propitiation for all men. The next vs 3 sasy if we know Him we should keep His commandments. Clearly man is being held responsible, namely it is the will of man to keep His commandments, and if we don't we are a liar and the truth is not in him

And Paul writes 2 Cor 5:14-15

14 For the love of Christ constraineth us; because we thus judge, that if one died for all, then were all dead:

15 And that he died for all, that they which live should not henceforth live unto themselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again.

The Apostle perceives the Love of Christ, which moved Him to give Himself for His Body the Church [His Seed] Eph 5:25, and that He died for all [The Seed], and the All He died for, died [judicially] with Him, and so they were as He was, all dead. Purpose being:

You do have the need to change words or the meaning of words. You quote II Cor 5:14-15 but you should also read further because it again condemns your view. II Cor 5:18-19, states quite clearly He reconciled the WORLD to Himself. Then vs 20 makes a plea for (us) to be reconciled to God. The plea is NOT for the Holy Spirit to reconcile men to God, but man himself. You know that free will at work in man.

That we which live, the we being, the all that died with Him, should not live unto themselves in the flesh, as servants of sin, but unto Him that died for them [ Christ their Surety] !

Those that died with Him is all men. I Cor 15:20-22. Heb 2:2. You are right that all those that He died for, He desires that all would live, II Pet 3:9, unto Him, instead of to themselves. Again man's will is at work choosing which way to go. The Holy Spirit does not decide which way we go.

Paul here just described the fruit of Christ's Death, it produces servants for Him. The same exact thing is taught in Titus 2:14, the end of His Redemptive Death produces a People zealous of Good Works !

Really,?? Why not start with vs11? another verse that condemns your whole theory. Not only did Christ die for all men, will raise all men, but that man is exhorted by Paul to live righteously. Nothing about the Holy Spirit doing the living. Why would Paul exhort believers if our individual salvation totally and completely is done by the Holy Spirit? Ah, that pesky free will gets in the way everytime.

Amazing, not a single text you cited even hints at. let alone specifically states, anything related to your theory.

Answer to your question at the top. Christ accomplished His purpose. However based on your view, His work was greatly limited and according to Paul totally in vain. I Cor 15:16-19.

 

[brightfame52]

thanks for the texts that support what scripture actually says.
Christ died for all men. because all men were dead. I John 2:2, Heb 2:9, I Cor 15:53, all those dead will be raised incorruptible and immortal.
Now, those that live should live unto God. In other words, He desires that all men live unto Him, Nowhere dies it say that the Holy Spirit is doing this living unto God for man. It is man's responsibility. However, sadly most of those for whom He died will not live unto God.

Where does it say that the Holy Spirit is forcing man to serve here. The whole context is being directed at those who believe. Man gets the honor, not the Holy Spirit.

Which is every single human being that has been born, and everyone that will come before He comes. I John 2:2.
So, we see Christ died for all, as well as His blood was a propitiation for all men. The next vs 3 sasy if we know Him we should keep His commandments. Clearly man is being held responsible, namely it is the will of man to keep His commandments, and if we don't we are a liar and the truth is not in him

You do have the need to change words or the meaning of words. You quote II Cor 5:14-15 but you should also read further because it again condemns your view. II Cor 5:18-19, states quite clearly He reconciled the WORLD to Himself. Then vs 20 makes a plea for (us) to be reconciled to God. The plea is NOT for the Holy Spirit to reconcile men to God, but man himself. You know that free will at work in man.

Those that died with Him is all men. I Cor 15:20-22. Heb 2:2. You are right that all those that He died for, He desires that all would live, II Pet 3:9, unto Him, instead of to themselves. Again man's will is at work choosing which way to go. The Holy Spirit does not decide which way we go.

Really,?? Why not start with vs11? another verse that condemns your whole theory. Not only did Christ die for all men, will raise all men, but that man is exhorted by Paul to live righteously. Nothing about the Holy Spirit doing the living. Why would Paul exhort believers if our individual salvation totally and completely is done by the Holy Spirit? Ah, that pesky free will gets in the way everytime.

Amazing, not a single text you cited even hints at. let alone specifically states, anything related to your theory.

Answer to your question at the top. Christ accomplished His purpose. However based on your view, His work was greatly limited and according to Paul totally in vain. I Cor 15:16-19.

The scripture confirms what I am testifying to in regards to the saving death of Christ. Those He died for in 2 Cor 5:14 died with Him, canceling out their sins, and as proof of that they shall live unto God, or unto Christ who died for them. His death for them ensures they shall live Spiritually for Him, because His resurrection was theirs also. Christ could not have died for anyone who never is made alive unto Him.

 

[Rightglory]

The scripture confirms what I am testifying to in regards to the saving death of Christ. Those He died for in 2 Cor 5:14 died with Him, canceling out their sins, and as proof of that they shall live unto God, or unto Christ who died for them. His death for them ensures they shall live Spiritually for Him, because His resurrection was theirs also. Christ could not have died for anyone who never is made alive unto Him.

More bland statements that do not address the issue. Why do you change the meaning of ALL MEN, OR THE WORLD, to only meaning some?
You will not find a text in scripture that states Christ cancelled ones sins by His atonement. His atonement makes forgiveness possible. Unless one confesses his sins, his sins will condemn one. Rom 10:9, Rom 14:11, James 5:16, I John 1:9. That atonement is available to all men that will ever be born.
Not much in this statement could one actually find in scripture.
You cite II Cor 4:14 and it plainly, in English, that Christ died for all, it does not say some, or only believers. It says also that because all died, all those same who died will live. He desired that they should live unto Him.
I believe in the resurrection of the dead. If the dead re not raised, then Christ is not raised, and even ones faith would be in vain, II Cor 15:16-19.
Again in plain English, I Cor 15:21 How plain can it be. It is an equation. Do you understand math?
"For since by man came death, by Man also came the resurrection of the dead. For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ all shall be made alive."
Another statement, also in I Cor 15:53, all those men who were made alive by His resurrection will be raised in the last day, incorruptible and immortal.
That is what it means to be made alive. We are no longer under the condemnation of death through Adam. Christ reversed the fall. Rom 5:12 is the fall. Heb 2:14-16, Rom 5:18-19 is Christ defeating that condemnation of death.- for all men, for the world.

 

[brightfame52]

More bland statements that do not address the issue. Why do you change the meaning of ALL MEN, OR THE WORLD, to only meaning some?
You will not find a text in scripture that states Christ cancelled ones sins by His atonement. His atonement makes forgiveness possible. Unless one confesses his sins, his sins will condemn one. Rom 10:9, Rom 14:11, James 5:16, I John 1:9. That atonement is available to all men that will ever be born.
Not much in this statement could one actually find in scripture.
You cite II Cor 4:14 and it plainly, in English, that Christ died for all, it does not say some, or only believers. It says also that because all died, all those same who died will live. He desired that they should live unto Him.
I believe in the resurrection of the dead. If the dead re not raised, then Christ is not raised, and even ones faith would be in vain, II Cor 15:16-19.
Again in plain English, I Cor 15:21 How plain can it be. It is an equation. Do you understand math?
"For since by man came death, by Man also came the resurrection of the dead. For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ all shall be made alive."
Another statement, also in I Cor 15:53, all those men who were made alive by His resurrection will be raised in the last day, incorruptible and immortal.
That is what it means to be made alive. We are no longer under the condemnation of death through Adam. Christ reversed the fall. Rom 5:12 is the fall. Heb 2:14-16, Rom 5:18-19 is Christ defeating that condemnation of death.- for all men, for the world.

Once again you are being a adversary to the accomplishment of Christ death. All who died with Him will be made to live unto Him who died for them. Thats only the saved, He didn't die for the eternally lost.

 

[Rightglory]

Once again you are being a adversary to the accomplishment of Christ death. All who died with Him will be made to live unto Him who died for them. Thats only the saved, He didn't die for the eternally lost.

How is it that you believe Christ accomplished God's will through the atonement, yet you limit His work only for believers. As I stated, Paul clearly says to those who hold your view of a limited atonement, it is all in vain, UNLESS CHRIST IS RISEN AND THE DEAD ARE RISEN.
Theologically, you have no hell. Who will be in hell? You leave most men mortal and in the grave never to even rise from the dead. Which means they will never be judged.

Yet scripture clearly stats that ALL THE DEAD will be raised because Christ was risen from death, defeating death.
I posted many texts but you have never responded to them specifically. You just keep repeating your bland theory with no understanding how God relates to man and how man relates to God and how it is even possible.
Let alone you hold to a limited atonement, you want God to be an authoritarian and force some people to believe and hold them prisoners.
In your view, who will be judged? What does Paul mean in Rom 2:5-8. Based on this text, how do these unjust rise from the grave in order to be judged? You contradict a lot of scripture to create a much smaller bible to fit your theory. Your answer is in I Cor 15: 20-22, and I Cor 15:53.

Another theological point is that your view denies the Incarnation of Christ, or at minimum He was not really man. Thus His resurrection had no effect upon the human race. Now, I know you are going to say you believe in the Incarnation, However your theology does not align with the scriptural definition of the Incarnation and its effect upon God's created universe.

He was unable to raise our human nature, our bodies from the grave because He did not have one like ours. If even one is raised all are raised there cannot be an exception.
This why Col 1:20 says so clearly that all things were given to Him so that He could reconcile ALL THINGS TO HIMSELF. And this statement balances or asserts the same in John 6:39. What was given to Christ to reconcile, ALL THINGS and He would lose nothing but should raise it up at the last day. Because He redeemed, reconciled, justified, made right all things, those that see His Son and believe will be raised to eternal life.
For a change, how about addressing the texts cited and the questions and explain yourself, rather than the nonsense you stated above. and keep repeating.

 

[Jim B]

Your reading comprehension is not good. I actually stated that Christ saved man twice. First by His resurrection from mortal, physical death and then believers will be saved from the second death which is a spiritual death, not a mortal death.
The first resurrection for the believer is baptism. A person is immersed into water his sinful nature dies, and then is raised to a new life in Christ. Rom 6 is called the baptism chapter.
People who deny their baptism is the same as one who never was baptised and had no part in the first resurrection.
And hell is separation form God, a second death, a spiritual one.

Baptism is a ritual only. If that isn't the case then all the people that John baptized in the Jordan River were resurrected, including Jesus. Clearly, that is ludicrous.

John 1:31, " I did not recognize him, but I came baptizing with water so that he could be revealed to Israel.”

 

[Rightglory]

Baptism is a ritual only. If that isn't the case then all the people that John baptized in the Jordan River were resurrected, including Jesus. Clearly, that is ludicrous.

Did you read the whole of Rom 6. the baptism chapter Baptism may be a ritual but it has salvic consequences. It is the spiritual death of our spiritual nature, and being raised from that water is a spiritual resurrection by which we put on Christ. This is the beginning of the new birth, it is entrance into Christ's Kingdom.
Why did Christ need to be baptized? He did not need it. But he made the purification of humanity His own, He would wash away sin of humanity, grant regeneration and reveal the mystery of the Trinity and also fulfillment of all of God's righteousness.

Rev 20:5-6 refers to this "first resurrection" and referencing believers who were baptized who will not experience the second death, spiritual death - hell. Non-believers will experience the second death, hell.

 

[brightfame52]

How is it that you believe Christ accomplished God's will through the atonement, yet you limit His work only for believers. As I stated, Paul clearly says to those who hold your view of a limited atonement, it is all in vain, UNLESS CHRIST IS RISEN AND THE DEAD ARE RISEN.
Theologically, you have no hell. Who will be in hell? You leave most men mortal and in the grave never to even rise from the dead. Which means they will never be judged.

Yet scripture clearly stats that ALL THE DEAD will be raised because Christ was risen from death, defeating death.
I posted many texts but you have never responded to them specifically. You just keep repeating your bland theory with no understanding how God relates to man and how man relates to God and how it is even possible.
Let alone you hold to a limited atonement, you want God to be an authoritarian and force some people to believe and hold them prisoners.
In your view, who will be judged? What does Paul mean in Rom 2:5-8. Based on this text, how do these unjust rise from the grave in order to be judged? You contradict a lot of scripture to create a much smaller bible to fit your theory. Your answer is in I Cor 15: 20-22, and I Cor 15:53.

Another theological point is that your view denies the Incarnation of Christ, or at minimum He was not really man. Thus His resurrection had no effect upon the human race. Now, I know you are going to say you believe in the Incarnation, However your theology does not align with the scriptural definition of the Incarnation and its effect upon God's created universe.

He was unable to raise our human nature, our bodies from the grave because He did not have one like ours. If even one is raised all are raised there cannot be an exception.
This why Col 1:20 says so clearly that all things were given to Him so that He could reconcile ALL THINGS TO HIMSELF. And this statement balances or asserts the same in John 6:39. What was given to Christ to reconcile, ALL THINGS and He would lose nothing but should raise it up at the last day. Because He redeemed, reconciled, justified, made right all things, those that see His Son and believe will be raised to eternal life.
For a change, how about addressing the texts cited and the questions and explain yourself, rather than the nonsense you stated above. and keep repeating.

Again, you are resisting the Truth, Christs death accomplished Salvation and effects it for all whom He died, the elect, the saved. If a person is never saved, converted to God and Christ so to serve them, then Christ did not die for them.

 

[Rightglory]

Again, you are resisting the Truth, Christs death accomplished Salvation and effects it for all whom He died, the elect, the saved. If a person is never saved, converted to God and Christ so to serve them, then Christ did not die for them.

You keep repeating this bland statement which says nothing. You cannot, theologically even explain just how this might be accomplished. Your saying so says nothing. You never address the texts I cite. You may disagree but you can never explain why you might disagree.
Here are actually true statements, however you disagree with the scriptural view.

"Christ's death accomplished salvation." Yes, salvation from death and sin. That is what He accomplished through His Incarnation. He effected it upon all man, Heb 2:9 I John 2:2. It is an objective work, completed and past tense, meaning "saved". You even misunderstand the difference between "saved" and" being saved". Not a single believer in his lifetime can ever say he is "saved". He is being saved, being saved through faith and our status will be shown at the end of our lives, I Pet 1:3-5.

Confine your study on these three texts in particular. They condemn your whole view emphatically.

 

[brightfame52]

You keep repeating this bland statement which says nothing. You cannot, theologically even explain just how this might be accomplished. Your saying so says nothing. You never address the texts I cite. You may disagree but you can never explain why you might disagree.
Here are actually true statements, however you disagree with the scriptural view.

"Christ's death accomplished salvation." Yes, salvation from death and sin. That is what He accomplished through His Incarnation. He effected it upon all man, Heb 2:9 I John 2:2. It is an objective work, completed and past tense, meaning "saved". You even misunderstand the difference between "saved" and" being saved". Not a single believer in his lifetime can ever say he is "saved". He is being saved, being saved through faith and our status will be shown at the end of our lives, I Pet 1:3-5.

Confine your study on these three texts in particular. They condemn your whole view emphatically.

The Truth needs repeating, you keep resisting it. It cant be denied, Christs death causes and effects Salvation. Now if one doesnt become a believer and live by faith, they were not someone Christ died for.