So the thread, as is inevitable with any eschatological topic, has evolved and wandered far away from us original premise... Amil/premil. The initial argument based on the belief that there is only one resurrection.
Jesus taught that there will be two general resurrections: “Marvel not at this: for the hour is coming, in the which all that are in the graves shall hear his voice, And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation.” John 5:28, 29.
Before giving further specific proof on this point, we must note that Christ referred to the resurrection of life and the resurrection of damnation. This seems to indicate that the saved and lost do not arise at the same time. Two separate resurrections are described.
Yes, but only one time/hour is referenced. So, there is no basis whatsoever for separating the resurrections by a long period of time. Jesus said a singular time/hour is coming when all of the dead would be resurrected.
John 5:28 “Do not be amazed at this, for
a time is coming when all who are in their graves will hear his voice 29 and come out—those who have done what is good will rise to live, and those who have done what is evil will rise to be condemned.
If your Premil understanding was accurate, then Jesus would have said two times are coming when all who are in the graves will be resurrected. But, that is not what He said. He indicated that a time is coming in the future at which point "those who have done what is good will rise to live, and those who have done what is evil will rise to be condemned".
According to Amil beliefs, the saved and lost won't be resurrected at the same exact moment, but their resurrections will be close enough together to where it will be part of the same event, which is the second coming of Christ.
If the resurrection of the saved and the lost was going to be 1,000+ years apart then how would Jesus describing it as "a time" that "is coming" when all the dead are raised make any sense?
The book of Revelation confirms this fact. John wrote, “Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with Him a thousand years.” Revelation 20:6.
The use of the term “first resurrection” is proof that there must be more than one. If I say, “This is the first house I built,” you know that I had to build at least one other.
According to scripture, the "first resurrection", which in Greek is "protos anastasis", was Christ's resurrection. The only other verse where the Greek words "protos" and "anastasis" are used together is this one:
Acts 26:23 that
the Messiah would suffer and, as
the first to rise (protos anastasis) from the dead, would bring the message of light to his own people and to the Gentiles.”
Lazarus and a few others had been resurrected from the dead before Jesus, so what does it mean for Jesus to be "the first to rise from the dead"? He was the first to rise from the dead unto bodily immortality.
Paul wrote about that here:
1 Corinthians 15:20 But
Christ has indeed been raised from the dead, the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep. 21 For since death came through a man, the resurrection of the dead comes also through a man. 22 For as in Adam all die, so
in Christ all will be made alive. 23 But each in turn: Christ, the firstfruits; then, when he comes, those who belong to him.
Here, Paul gives the order of resurrections unto bodily immortality. We know that's the context of what he was talking about here because later in the same chapter he again referenced the resurrection of the dead in Christ and said it would occur "at the last trumpet" at which point we all will be changed to have immortal bodies. Christ Himself was "the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep". So, His resurrection was the first unto bodily immortality. Who is next in order, according to Paul? It is "those who belong to" Christ. So, according to scripture, the mass resurrection of believers at His second coming is not the first resurrection, since that was Christ's resurrection. A first implies a second, so that resurrection of "those who belong to him" will be a second resurrection unto bodily immortality.
So, what is the following verse referring to then?
Revelation 20:6 Blessed and holy are those who share in the first resurrection. The second death has no power over them, but they will be priests of God and of Christ and will reign with him for a thousand years.
Since Christ's resurrection was the first resurrection, this must be talking about people sharing (having part) in Christ's resurrection. The second death has no power over those who share in the first resurrection and they are "priests of God and of Christ" and reign with Him.
Is the idea of the second death not having power over people and the idea of people being "priests of God and of Christ" a future expectation or a current reality? Read the following to see for yourself:
Revelation 1:5 and from
Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness,
the firstborn from the dead, and
the ruler of the kings of the earth.To him who loves us and
has freed us from our sins by his blood, 6 and
has made us to be a kingdom and priests to serve his God and Father—to him be glory and power for ever and ever! Amen.
There are a few important things to note about this passage and how it relates to Revelation 20:6.
First, it indicates that Jesus Christ is "the firstborn from the dead". That is another reference to the fact that He was the first to rise from the dead unto bodily immortality. His resurrection was the first resurrection.
Second, it describes Jesus as "the ruler of the kings of the earth" in present tense. He was already reigning back then when John wrote the book.
Third, it says Jesus "has freed us from our sins by his blood". In Revelation 20:6 it says the second death has no power over those who share in the first resurrection. At what point does the second death no longer have any power over someone? At the same point that someone has been freed from their sins by Christ's blood. When someone becomes saved they are set free from their sins by Christ's blood and they have the hope of eternal life instead of being destined for the second death, which is to be cast into the lake of fire (Rev 20:14-15). So, the second death currently has no power over believers. Not just those who are physically dead and in heaven now, but also those who are alive and are saved.
Fourth, it says Jesus had already back then "made us to be a kingdom and priests to serve his God and Father". That means the reference to those who share in the first resurrection as being "priests of God and of Christ" who reign with Christ for a thousand years is a current reality.
Two points are established in this text. First, only the good people , the redeemed of Christ, from all of history, will have any part in the first resurrection. It plainly says, “Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection.” Second, we learn that the resurrection of those saints is the beginning point of the millennium, because after being raised they “shall reign with him a thousand years.”
According to this verse, none of the wicked will have any part in the first resurrection. This is also established by verses 4 and 5 which describe the resurrection of those “which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived (came to live) and reigned with Christ a thousand years. … This is the first resurrection.” This leaves no doubt about the class who will be included in the first resurrection. It is only for those who remained faithful to Christ. But in the midst of that text we find a very significant, parenthetical sentence: “But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished.” Verse 5.
No one was claiming that any of the wicked have part in the first resurrection, so I'm not sure why you felt the need to point this out.
Obviously, the “rest of the dead” can only be in reference to the wicked.
Amils believe this as well.
They will come forth from their graves at the end of the millennium—when “the thousand years were finished.”
As will the righteous or else what Jesus said in John 5:28-29 would not make any sense since He said a singular time (event) is coming when all of the dead would be raised, not two times.
Now we have a clear picture before us of two resurrections separated by a thousand years. The good people are raised at the beginning of the millennium, and the wicked are resurrected at the end.
No, I don't find your explanation to be clear at all. It doesn't line up with the rest of scripture, including John 5:28-29. Premil simply contradicts John 5:28-29 since there is no indication there whatsoever that Jesus talking about two separate resurrections separated by a long period of time. Him saying that a time (not times) is coming when all the dead will be raised does not give an indication of two resurrections separated by a long period of time at all.
Another thing to consider here is that scripture teaches that all people will be judged at the same time (Matt 13:36-43, Matt 13:47-50, Matt 25:31-46, Acts 17:31). Obviously, John 5:28-29 talks about people being resurrected and then judged. So, that all people will be judged at the same time implies that all of the dead will be resurrected at generally the same time as well.