Why do you tempt me to insult you?
I'm not. That is your choice entirely.
Do you not understand the meaning and significance of the phrases "son of God", "son of man", "king of Israel", "son of David", "messiah"?
Yes, I understand them. I'm not sure that you do, though.
You have lied repeatedly in your posts today. That is undeniable. Do you even know what a lie is? It's when you say something that isn't true which you have been doing in regards to what Amils believe. Blatant lies.
You simply don't recognize what you are doing. I say you don't believe the OT as written because you believe you need the NT to understand it. Am I wrong?
Yes, you're wrong. In order to believe the OT as written we need the NT and the Holy Spirit's help to understand what is written. Your understanding of reading it as written is to read it all literally. But, it's not all written literally.
Yes, it is. Paul didn't make crap up as you suppose.
Buddy, you better calm down. You are showing a high level of immaturity in this thread which I find to be shameful. Is it not possible for you to have a discussion without lying and without being disrespectful? So, you're saying the OT does clearly teach what Paul wrote about in Galatians 3:16-29? Where?
He does not share your hermeneutic. He takes no license or liberty with regard to the scriptures. His arguments are based on the OT as written.
Really? Tell me where exactly in the OT we can find text that is similar to what Paul wrote in Galatians 3:16-29.
What do I mean by "as written"? We are seeking the author's original intent. When we read Daniel or Isaiah, we aren't asking "what does the NT say about it?" We are asking, "what did Daniel mean to say?, what did Isaiah mean to say. THAT is how Paul read the OT. Our approach should be the same as his approach. Paul didn't invent the concept of Gentile salvation. He came to understand the concept from a study of Genesis.
So, how exactly did Paul learn what he wrote about in Galatians 3:16-29 from the OT? Tell me where he learned it from in the OT. Why do you never mention the Holy Spirit? Do you think the Holy Spirit had a role in teaching Paul his understanding of what the OT means?
I am not talking about whether or not a passage should be taken literal. I am talking about reading to understand what the author originally meant.
Yes, and we can use the NT to help us determine that. That should be obvious. Without Galatians 3:16-29, how would we know that the promises that God made to Abraham and his seed were made to Abraham and to Christ and would be applied to those who belong to Christ as well?
Amillennialism doesn't interpret the OT that way.
Part of determining what was meant in the OT is to allow the NT to help us see that. Do you have something against the NT or something? Why would you try to interpret the OT without the aid of the NT? That makes no sense.
It reads into the OT what it wants to see.
No, we use the NT to help us understand the OT, such as in regards to the promises that God made to Abraham and his seed. Without the aid of NT passages like Galatians 3:16-29, we would not properly understand that.
You believe that one of the Israel's is "spiritual" and includes Gentiles, which is incorrect.
So, tell me how you interpret the following passage then. You do a lot of talking, but I don't see you doing anything to back up your words with scripture. My understanding partly comes from what Paul taught here, so why don't you take this opportunity to tell me how you think I should be interpreting this passage:
Romans 9:6 It is not as though God’s word had failed.
For not all who are descended from Israel are Israel. 7 Nor because they are his descendants are they all Abraham’s children. On the contrary, “It is through Isaac that your offspring will be reckoned.” 8
In other words, it is not the children by physical descent who are God’s children, but it is the children of the promise who are regarded as Abraham’s offspring.