mailmandan said:
Believers are saved apart from the merit of works (Romans 4:2-6; Ephesians 2:8-9)
Ephesians 2:8-9 is dealing primarily with our Initial Salvation. It’s the 1st aspect of our salvation in being saved by God’s grace through faith without works because one is first coming to the Lord Jesus and seeking His mercy and forgiveness and believing the gospel message in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4. No works are involved in this 1st aspect of salvation. But that does not undo the secondary aspect of salvation in 2 Thessalonians 2:13-14.
Ephesians 2:8-9 is dealing with Initial Salvation because Paul says to the Ephesian believers that they have been quickened (made alive) (See: Ephesians 2:1). How many times is a believer quickened and WHEN does that happen? It happens just one time normally, and it happens when they first come to the Lord to be initially saved.
Romans 4:2-6 is also dealing with Initial Salvation in being saved by God’s grace through faith because Paul is fighting against the heresy of Circumcision Salvationism. For Paul says in the previous chapter, what profit is there in circumcision? Circumcision to be initially saved was a heresy that was addressed at the Jerusalem council in Acts 15 (Please read: Acts of the Apostles 15:1, Acts of the Apostles 15:5, and Acts of the Apostles 15:24).
You said:
yet saving faith does not remain apart from the presence of works. (James 2:14-24)
So then works are a part of the salvation equation then because it shows evidence of one’s faith being genuine or true. So then it’s not faith alone. Works must be there to show a genuine faith. So works are necessary at a later time to show one is truly saved.
You said:
Believers are also not sinless, without fault of defect, flawless, 100% of the time (1 John 1:8)
John was writing to the brethren about those who were trying to seduce them or lead them astray (See; 1 John 2:26). So in 1 John 1:8, John is warning the brethren about a false gnostic belief (those who were trying to seduce them) that taught that sin is non-existent or an illusion. This makes sense because 1 John 1:10 says that these gnostics held to a false belief that said they have never sinned ever in the past. We both agree that we have sinned in the past, so 1 John 1:10 is clearly a false gnostic belief being spoke about here. 1 John 1:8 is dealing with the gnostic thinking that sin does not exist
(in the present tense moment), and therefore John warns if we say we have no sin (if we do sin) we deceive ourselves. 1 John 1:9 is the proper remedy of dealing with sin instead of simply denying sin’s existence. OSAS Proponents deny sin partially. They believe sin exists physically, but yet they believe that on a spiritual level that a Christian’s sin is non-existent because Jesus paid for their future sins by their belief alone in Jesus as their Savior. So 1 John 1:8 would be a warning to the OSAS Proponent who denies sin partially. John tells the brethren to “sin not” in then next chapter (1 John 2:1). John says that we can know the Lord if we find we are keeping His commandments (See: 1 John 2:3). The person who says they know the Lord and does not keep His commandments is a liar and the truth is not in them (See: 1 John 2:4). So your view that we are always in sin according to 1 John 1:8 does not line up with a normal reading of 1 John 2:1, 1 John 2:3-4.
You said:
yet believers do not [deliberately, knowingly, and habitually] practice sin either. (1 John 3:9)
I believe the Modern Bibles are corrupted at this point when they say, “
does not practice sin.” The King James more accurately renders this as “
doth not commit sin.” This “
doth not commit sin” is in view of willful or deliberate sin so as to justify sin. Meaning, the person who wrongfully commits sin
(willfully or so as to justify sin) is thinking they cannot help but to sin at some point in the future and thus… they do so (either the next day, or next week or next month; Meaning, they erroneously think they are a slave to their sin). Therefore, “
doth not commit sin” is not even exist in their mindset (because they falsely believe they must commit sin at some point their whole lives). This is justifying sin.
You said:
If you believe that we are saved based on good works and refraining from sin, then just how many good works does it take and just how much sin must you refrain from? All genuine believers are fruitful, yet not all are equally fruitful. (Matthew 13:23) Christians are not sinless 100% of the time, but they should sin less and those who are born of God doe not practice sin. (1 John 3:9) You seem to have your own personal standard of grading. Do you grade on a curve?
Well, first, a believer cannot have the mentality that they can abide in sin
(that God condemns with warnings of hellfire or judgment) with the thinking that they are saved. Otherwise, they are not even at the gate to start the race because they have a wrong view on sin and its consequences. Sin must be confessed and forsaken in order to have mercy (Proverbs 28:13) (1 John 1:9) (1 John 1:7). Second, to answer you: Matthew 25:21 says that we must be faithful over a few things to enter the joy of our Lord.
Matthew 25:21
“His lord said unto him, Well done,
thou good and faithful servant: thou hast been faithful over a few things, I will make thee ruler over many things: enter thou into the joy of thy lord.”
However, the unprofitable servant was cast into outer darkness where there is weeping and gnashing of teeth (See: Matthew 25:30).