This is not a reason for you to come to my view. I have no such expectation.
Rather, it is to help those who understand and appreciate grammatical, Scriptural, and historical evidence, to come to their own conclusion and decision.
You're not one of those.
Daniel 9:25 Know therefore and understand, that from the going forth of the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem unto the Messiah the Prince shall be seven weeks, and threescore and two weeks: the street shall be built again, and the wall, even in troublous times.
26 And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined.
27 And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.
This is who all I see in the text.
A) Messiah the Prince(verse 25)
B) Messiah(verse 25)
C) himself(verse 25)
D) the people of the prince that shall come(verse 25)
E) the prince that shall come(verse 25)
F) he shall confirm the covenant(verse 26)
G) he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease(verse 26)
H) for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate(verse 26)
In my mind I have no issue accepting that A), B), C), F), and G), are all referring to the same person, that being the Messiah the Prince in verse 25.
What some of you are not factoring in is that there is H) to consider. Someone per A)-G) has to explain the pronoun 'he' in H). Clearly, A), B), C), F), and G), can't explain that pronoun if all of those are meaning Christ. We have E), though. That has to be the only logical thing that can explain the pronoun in H), that it has to be the prince that shall come. Therefore, E) can't be meaning Christ because Christ can't remotely fit the pronoun 'he' in H). It's that simple. It is absurd to take the prince to come per E) to be meaning Christ when E) is the only thing that can explain H) if Christ is meant per A), B), C), F), and G) .
Some of you would have us believe that there is no one in the text anywhere from verse 25 through verse 27 that can explain the 'he' meant in H)?
You might argue that the pronoun 'he' in question is not in the original manuscripts, therefore, a moot point. Do you in turn, in order to remain consistent in how you are arguing that, assuming you might argue that, argue in the same manner per this pronoun 'he' he shall confirm the covenant, and this one as well, he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease?