Spiritual Israelite
Well-Known Member
Why would there be any concern about that? Can you explain exactly what you think Paul was concerned about that they might believe that contradicted what he taught about the day of the Lord?The message isn't "the rapture already happened", the message is, the day of Christ/Lord is here, with "here" to be understood as, it's come, and it's staying. That day, it's come, to stay. It's in the perfect tense, that's what that tense means.
I believe it makes more sense that the concern Paul had is that some of them might be deceived into thinking they missed the rapture, which, according to 1 Thess 4:14-5:3, would mean they would experience God's wrath instead. He wanted them to remember that certain things had to happen first and that if those things hadn't happened yet, then it would obviously make it impossible that the day of the Lord had come yet.
No, you are missing the context of what Paul's concern was that he didn't want them to believe if anyone tried to tell them that the day of the Lord had already come.This is one reason why your interpretation simply doesn't fit with the wording and the syntax of the passage. Your interpretation has them being told, "Rapture day is here to stay", which doesn't make sense, considering the rapture is an event that occurs and then it's over. So these terms, "the gathering to our Lord"/"rapture"/harpadzo, and, "the day of Christ/day of the Lord" are not equivalent.
You are missing that Paul's train of thought does not change from 2 Thess 2 verse 1 to verse 2 as if he changed the subject in verse 2, as you believe. Look at it closely. I don't know what your preferred translation is, but this is from the NIV:
2 Thessalonians 2:1 Concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered to him, we ask you, brothers and sisters, 2 not to become easily unsettled or alarmed by the teaching allegedly from us—whether by a prophecy or by word of mouth or by letter—asserting that the day of the Lord has already come. 3 Don’t let anyone deceive you in any way, for that day will not come until the rebellion occurs and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the man doomed to destruction.
It's clear to me that everything he says in verses 1, 2 and 3 relates to the same event, which is "the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered to him". There is no indication whatsoever that he changes the subject as it goes from verse 1 to verse 2.
You seem to act as if he said in verse 1: "Concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered to him, we ask you, brothers and sisters" and then in verse 2 basically says "Nevermind about that. I'm going to start talking about a different event instead that doesn't concern "the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered to him" instead.
I just can't understand how you conclude that he changes the subject from verse 1 to verse 2. I can't see that at all. It's obvious to me that, to make it easier on himself and reduce the amount of writing he had to do, he just referred to "the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered to him" as "the day of the Lord" in verse 2. And then he just called it "that day" in verse 3. Clearly, it would've been ridiculous for him to refer to "the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered to him" in all 3 verses, so he labeled that day that Christ will come and we're gathered to Him as "the day of the Lord". Just like he did in 1 Thess 4:14-5:3.
I don't think so.Again, this isn't from an interpetation, I'm relaying the syntax of the passage.