Like I said,,,we agree re the atonement.Maybe... <smile>
I've been very clear about this. Christ's sacrifice is sufficient for all, and in that sense is for the whole world, for everyone... unlimited. However, we know that not everyone will be saved, Christ's atonement is only applied to and effectual for those who have been given to Christ by the Father, the elect. In that sense, Christ's atonement is indeed limited... to the elect of God. As Christ Himself said, "All that the Father gives me will come to me, and whoever comes to me I will never cast out" (John 6:37), and "No one can come to Me unless the Father Who sent Me draws him. And I will raise him up on the last day" (John 6:44), and "My sheep hear My voice, and I know them, and they follow Me. I give them eternal life, and they will never perish, and no one will snatch them out of My hand. My Father, Who has given them to me, is greater than all, and no one is able to snatch them out of the Father’s hand. I and the Father are one." (John 10:27-30).
But MUST you add all those little side verses that would each require a complete reply?
This makes it very difficult to speak to you.
IF the Father h as to give persons,,,there is NO NEED for any atoning sacrifice.
If Calvinism is correct,,,Jesus NEVER HAD TO DIE.
I'm not going down each rabbit hole you present so I'll stop here.
A call in Scripture can be in one of two senses, and is... either/or, of course... in different places in Scripture:
Ohhhh... I sure here we go with free will again, as if I'm saying there is no such thing...
- There is a general call of the Gospel, and this is issued to all. Yes, this is an invitation
- But there is the inward call to salvation in Christ, issued individually and inwardly by the Spirit only to God's elect. This calling of God always results in the conversion of the heart to Christ. Yes, we are called out of darkness and into His marvelous light. In receiving this call, we are then born again, and no longer children of the devil (of Satan) but children of God (of God).
I like the call in Book 3, Chapter 24, Paragraph 8
Just below the beginning....I'll post it if I have to but I'm sure you have the institutes and could find it.
Please comment ON THAT call.
Thanks.
BTW...It kind of proves OSAS or ETERNAL SECURITY or PRESERVATION OF THE SAINTS is false.
But that's another rabbit hole..but a good one because it they're false...calvinism falls on its face, doesn't it?
WHERE does it state in the NT that God gives His grace to ONLY those He wishes to elect?Not at all. Here we talk about God's grace, which in one sense is common and given to all. Everyone, whether they know it or not, acknowledge it or not, is given grace by God in varying measure... starting with life itself. But not everyone will receive God's salvific grace, what we sometimes call particular grace, which is given by God to His elect only.
And HOW does one become an elect?
WHERE does it state this in scripture?Sure we do. Absolutely. And in concert with other passages. The 'whoever' here is exactly what Jesus is referring to in John 3:16, and Paul in Romans 10:9. And this 'whoever' depends first on receiving God's call.
These passages are PRSCRIPTIVE PS....NOT DESCRIPTIVE.
Unless you could prove otherwise.
I don't have to prove it....simple reading skills and context and doctrine in general will bring to the premise that
ANYONE...WHOSOVER, CHIUNQUE, can receive salvation by believing in Jesus.
BY BELIEVING IN JESUS.
Acts 16:31 BELIEVE IN JESUS and you will be saved.
Explain that one...it cannot be explained away.
You're going to have to show this from scripture.It is absolutely true that whoever calls on the name of the Lord will be saved/delivered. But only those who are called by God will call on the name of the Lord... our calling on the name of the Lord is the direct result of our having received, by the Spirit, the salvific call of God and having been born again of the Spirit.
And,,, we're back to the backwards buggy.
First we have to be born again in order to become born again.
Very interesting Pin.
Let me ask: Are all babies born totally depraved?
Or are those that WILL BE CALLED already saved?
Sounds trappy...
it is.
If those that WILL BE CALLED are born saved.
Why is ANY grace needed?
Ah, so it's irrelevant, and has nothing to do with the New Testament, and we should completely ignore it. I see... <smile> Goodness gracious. So this is not really a Reformed "issue," GodsGrace, but rather, really, a covenantal thing as opposed to a dispensational thing, which has... well, far-reaching ramifications. Scripture is covenantal and intimately connected, rather than dispensational and disjointed.
Did I say the OT is irrelevant? here's what I said: If I did say it, please copy and paste because it's not something I would say.
The reformed use the OT because of all the different types of language there: Two would be poetic writing and narrative writing. Easy to find almost anything there.
Now, I'm going to make believe you understand that the OT has different writing types/forms.
What I said is that you SHOULD NOT use POETIC LANGUAGE to create doctrine.
You could disgree...but I don't believe any doctrine is based on any poetic language.
Did I say anything pertaining to Jesus and the OT?LOL! Jesus and all the New Testament writers quote the Old Testament very, very, extensively. Come on, GodsGrace, you know that.
I fear our conversation will quickly be coming to an end if you can't even understand what I'm saying.
It might be me...maybe.
Here's what I said:
Sticking to only the NT is difficult for the reformed. Want to try it?
I stand by this statement.
Guess you don't want to try it.
Can't prove ANY calvinist doctrine using ONLY the NT because it's biographical and literal.
God HATED Esau? Could you interpret Luke 14:26? Thanks.
Individual. Paul starts if off by referring to Jacob, whom He loved, and Esau, whom He hated.
Paul wishes HE could be accursed to save his Jewish brethren.
He seems to love them more than God love them since so many of them were made to go to hell.
To whom was Paul addressing his remarks? To the gentiles or to the Jews? see 9:3 TO THE JEWS
What question does Paul ask in Romans 9: 6 HAS GOD FAILED?
Which mercy Pin?Then he goes on to say that being one of His elect depends not on human will or exertion, but on God, who has mercy.
The mercy that sends most of humanity to hell?
You haven't posted the verse for what salvation depends on.
And you should know that it only means that we are not saved by our works...human will = works.
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