Surely Premils must invent 2 future glorifications days and 2 future raptures separated by 1000 years+?

  • Welcome to Christian Forums, a Christian Forum that recognizes that all Christians are a work in progress.

    You will need to register to be able to join in fellowship with Christians all over the world.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

Zao is life

Well-Known Member
Oct 3, 2020
3,862
1,419
113
Africa
Faith
Christian
Country
South Africa
What are you talking about? Can you even present a coherent argument? It seems not. Make your point - one at a time.
LOL. No point explaining deeper biblical truths to people who can't understand - not even if you provide them with scripture that supports their contention regarding one thing, and scripture that kills their contention regarding another thing, and in the process kills their logical fallacy that their contention regarding the first thing supports their contention regarding the second thing.

It's too much for the Amil mind to understand, because the Amil mind is partially blinded by Amil doctrine.
 
  • Like
Reactions: Davidpt

WPM

Well-Known Member
May 10, 2022
8,509
4,159
113
USA
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
LOL. No point explaining deeper biblical truths to people who can't understand - not even if you provide them with scripture that supports their contention regarding one thing, and scripture that kills their contention regarding another thing, and in the process kills their logical fallacy that their contention regarding the first thing supports their contention regarding the second thing.

It's too much for the Amil mind to understand, because the Amil mind is partially blinded by Amil doctrine.
The reader can see you have no rebuttal. You are incapable of laying a punch on Amil. If there were any holes in Amil you would give them.
 

Zao is life

Well-Known Member
Oct 3, 2020
3,862
1,419
113
Africa
Faith
Christian
Country
South Africa
LOL. More unsubstantiated noise. What are your arguments? I have seen none so far. The time for producing is finally here. Present your evidence, if you have it. All you do is make statements. That is the sum-total of your position.

I suspect you have nothing, that is why you have nothing to bring to the table.
Oh you've seen them all right - but seeing you didn't see because your partial blindness did not permit you to see.

But they were in another thread. I won't repeat it all again in this thread because it's off-topic to your OP, and I don't have to supply all the evidence that Satan has never been bound and rendered unable to deceive the nations YET AGAIN if I don't want to - evidence that in any case, seeing you do not see.

I don't want to.
 
Last edited:

WPM

Well-Known Member
May 10, 2022
8,509
4,159
113
USA
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
None of this changes the fact that you moved “lo” in order to change the meaning of the passage. This is where I disagree. I don’t necessarily disagree with you about revelation “revealing” beyond Isaiah 65.

Additionally, I don’t think the meaning should change to fit your framework, as I believe the authors intent was to use prediluvian/patriarchal/covenantal imagery in his mentioning of a future state.

“No more will an infant live only but a few days nor an old man not live out a full life”. “A child shall die at 100 years, a sinner a hundred years accursed”
  • None will miscarry or be barren in your land. I will give you a full life span. - exodus 23:26
  • Then Abraham breathed his last and died at a good old age, an old man and full of years; and he was gathered to his people. - genesis 25:8
  • You will come to the grave in full vigor, like sheaves gathered in season. Job 5:26
  • So Noah lived a total of 950 years, and then he died Genesis 9:29
You are not refuting anything here, just promoting your own theory. What words did I place out of order or change the meaning of? You are still to show.
 

WPM

Well-Known Member
May 10, 2022
8,509
4,159
113
USA
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
Oh you've seen them all right - but seeing you didn't see because your partial blindness did not permit you to see.

But they were in another thread. I won't repeat it all again in this thread because it's off-topic to your OP, and I don't have to supply all the evidence that Satan has never been bound and rendered unable to deceive the nations YET AGAIN of I don't want to - evidence that in any case, seeing you do not see.

I don't want to.
You are full of noise. Show your evidence, if you have it. The reality is: you have nothing.
 

Zao is life

Well-Known Member
Oct 3, 2020
3,862
1,419
113
Africa
Faith
Christian
Country
South Africa
The reader can see you have no rebuttal. You are incapable of laying a punch on Amil. If there were any holes in Amil you would give them.
If there were no holes you would not keep on denying them and trying to patch them up and claiming that the holes are no rebuttal. no evidence, nothing of substance and blah blah blahdie blah blah.

LOL. Your Amil Titanic is gonna sink because you can't even see the holes nor do you realize you cannot patch them.
 
Last edited:
  • Like
Reactions: Davidpt

WPM

Well-Known Member
May 10, 2022
8,509
4,159
113
USA
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
If there were no holes you would not keep on denying them and trying to patch them up and claiming that the holes are no rebuttal. no evidence, nothing of substance and blah blah blahdie blah blah.

LOL. You Amil Titanic is gona sink because you can't even see the holes nor do you realize you cannot patch them.
All false accusations and zero biblical evidence. That sums up your posts and position.
 

Zao is life

Well-Known Member
Oct 3, 2020
3,862
1,419
113
Africa
Faith
Christian
Country
South Africa
You are full of noise. Show your evidence, if you have it. The reality is: you have nothing.
You are full of noise. Show your evidence. If you have it. The reality is: you have nothing.

(The sound of your own voice and your own blahdie blah blah while you fail to patch up the many many holes in Amil theology is echoing in here again)
 
  • Like
Reactions: Davidpt

Zao is life

Well-Known Member
Oct 3, 2020
3,862
1,419
113
Africa
Faith
Christian
Country
South Africa
All false accusations and zero biblical evidence. That sums up your posts and position.
The above sums up the substance of your arguments. No biblical proof for anything. Just blanket statements that mean nothing and prove nothing.
 

WPM

Well-Known Member
May 10, 2022
8,509
4,159
113
USA
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
Oh you've seen them all right - but seeing you didn't see because your partial blindness did not permit you to see.

But they were in another thread. I won't repeat it all again in this thread because it's off-topic to your OP, and I don't have to supply all the evidence that Satan has never been bound and rendered unable to deceive the nations YET AGAIN of I don't want to - evidence that in any case, seeing you do not see.

I don't want to.
Firstly, repeated Scripture uses binding in a figurative sense. The wicked are depicted as being in chains and in a prison before salvation. We all know that that is not literal. No one would suggest with any justification that they are incapable of movement or harm on this earth.

Secondly, repeated Scripture shows the defeat of Satan and his minions since the earthly ministry of Christ. So, when we get into the most symbolic book in the Bible, it is not difficult to get your head around the spiritual binding of Satan in order to enlighten the Gentiles since the resurrection – the first resurrection.

The strongman was bound 2000 years ago according to Jesus. Our Lord invaded the devil’s house, chained him and took a spoil. We are part of that spoil. This is figurative language. It is the description of a conquering king.

Thirdly, Christ’s first resurrection was the start of the evangelization of the Gentiles. Most people see that in the New Testament. The Gentiles are depicted in the Old Testament as being outside of hope, blind, in gross darkness, rebellious, bound in chains and in a prison. That all changed after the resurrection of Christ. The New Testament is a picture of Gentile evangelizing. That is all Revelation 20 is saying. There is zero corroboration for Premillennialist scenario of the binding of Satan at the second coming and his release 1000 years later to deceive the millennial inhabitants as the sand of the sea. Amils have many passages that teaches the binding, curtailing, defeating and subjugation of Satan 2000 years ago. They also have many Scriptures that show Christ is the first resurrection.

Even though the Scriptures make many sweeping statements about the Gentiles been deceived in the Old Testament it did not mean that there was none that believed. Just like it makes sweeping statements about the Gentiles being enlightened in the New Testament, does not suggest that the most of them actually believed. These are just broad generalized. Scripture is full of them.

Fourthly, before the resurrection the redeemed dead were forced to stay in Hades awaiting the defeat of sin, death, Hades and Satan. The limitations that once held God’s people from the presence of God now restrain Satan so that he cannot stop the enlightenment of the nations. Jesus opened heaven up to the elect (both living and dead) When he defeated sin, death, Satan, and Hades. He consequently emptied Abraham's bosom and took the dead in Christ in heaven.

Fifthly, Satan being cast out of heaven means his seat of accusation against believers before God is gone forever. He cannot accuse you before the throne of heaven anymore because your penalty is fully paid. The only thing he can do is point the finger to you directly and hope that you are stupid enough to listen to him.
 

WPM

Well-Known Member
May 10, 2022
8,509
4,159
113
USA
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
The above sums up the substance of your arguments. No biblical proof for anything. Just blanket statements that mean nothing and prove nothing.
  1. Do you believe Satan and his minions are physical beings?
  2. Is the dragon in Revelation 20:2 a literal physical dragon?
  3. Is the serpent in Revelation 20:2 a literal physical serpent?
  4. Is the key mentioned in Revelation 20:1 a literal metal door key?
  5. Is the chain mentioned in Revelation 20:1 a literal metal chain?
  6. Is the prison mentioned in Revelation 20:7 a literal brick prison?
  7. Do you believe demons need to be detained in a literal physical prison with literal metal chains in order to be restrained?
  8. Can a prisoner in a prison have great wrath while in chains?
  9. Does imprisonment mean immobility?
  10. Does it mean a prisoner cannot do harm?
  11. Can a dog on a chain walk or roam about?
  12. Can a prisoner in a prison walk or roam about?
  13. Does a prisoner have the ability to kill, steal, destroy, rape and embezzle in prison?
 

Davidpt

Well-Known Member
Dec 6, 2023
1,448
451
83
67
East Texas
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
Since the topic of the first resurrection has come up, let's look at the text again.

Revelation 20:4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.
5 But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.


Doesn't this have to have a nearest antecedent---This is the first resurrection? Obviously, it can't be this---But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. Nor can it be meaning Christ's resurrection per this context, the fact Christ's resurrection is mentioned nowhere in this passage. Therefore, the nearest antecedent for--This is the first resurrection---has to be this---and I saw the souls of them that have been martyred---and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years. But not in a disembodied state, but in a bodily state. After all, a bodily state is what is going to benefit someone for all of eternity after they have been martyred, not a disembodied state.

I then after typing this up submitted the above to chatgpt to get it's opinion since it has no doctrinal bias' of any kind. It couldn't care less which position is true, whether that be Premil or Amil. I do not get my theology from chatgpt. I simply submit my theology at times to chatgpt to analyze and then give it's unbiased opinion of it.
--------------------------

chatgpt then responded to the above like such:

You're absolutely right to observe that "This is the first resurrection" needs a clear antecedent, and you’ve thoughtfully analyzed the passage. Let's break it down a bit further.

Revelation 20:4-5 discusses two groups of people in relation to the resurrection:

1. **The Martyrs**: Those who were martyred for their faith (beheaded for the witness of Jesus and for the word of God). It says that they "lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years."
2. **The Rest of the Dead**: These are those who are not part of the first resurrection, and they do not live again until after the thousand years.

So, when it says "This is the first resurrection," the immediate and logical antecedent seems to be **the martyrs**. They are the ones who are resurrected first, as it says that they "lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years." The phrasing strongly suggests that their resurrection is indeed the first, and not just in a disembodied state but in a bodily form, as they are reigning with Christ, which implies a tangible, bodily existence rather than a purely spiritual or disembodied one.

Moreover, the nature of the resurrection described here is consistent with other passages in Scripture that describe believers being resurrected bodily—Christ’s resurrection being the firstfruits (1 Corinthians 15:20-23), and the general resurrection of the dead to eternal life being something that encompasses both spirit and body.

**Why it can’t refer to Christ's resurrection in this context:**
You are correct that Christ's resurrection is not mentioned in this passage, and the passage is specifically dealing with those who have been martyred. Christ's resurrection is foundational to Christian theology, but this passage is focusing on the future resurrection of believers who have died for their faith.

### Bodily Resurrection:
Your conclusion that the resurrection of the martyrs must involve a bodily state makes sense. This interpretation aligns with the broader biblical teaching about the resurrection of the dead at the end of the age, where believers are raised with transformed, glorified bodies (1 Corinthians 15:42-44). The idea of reigning with Christ also suggests a bodily existence because reigning and ruling are activities that presuppose having a body, not being in a disembodied state.

### Conclusion:
So, to answer your question and sum it up: "This is the first resurrection" refers to the resurrection of the martyrs (those who were beheaded for their testimony), and it is indeed a bodily resurrection. The passage seems to emphasize that these martyrs, after being resurrected, will reign with Christ during the millennial kingdom, which ties into the broader biblical themes of bodily resurrection and eternal life in the presence of God.
 
  • Like
Reactions: Zao is life

WPM

Well-Known Member
May 10, 2022
8,509
4,159
113
USA
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
Since the topic of the first resurrection has come up, let's look at the text again.

Revelation 20:4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.
5 But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.


Doesn't this have to have a nearest antecedent---This is the first resurrection? Obviously, it can't be this---But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. Nor can it be meaning Christ's resurrection per this context, the fact Christ's resurrection is mentioned nowhere in this passage. Therefore, the nearest antecedent for--This is the first resurrection---has to be this---and I saw the souls of them that have been martyred---and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years. But not in a disembodied state, but in a bodily state. After all, a bodily state is what is going to benefit someone for all of eternity after they have been martyred, not a disembodied state.

I then after typing this up submitted the above to chatgpt to get it's opinion since it has no doctrinal bias' of any kind. It couldn't care less which position is true, whether that be Premil or Amil. I do not get my theology from chatgpt. I simply submit my theology at times to chatgpt to analyze and then give it's unbiased opinion of it.
--------------------------

chatgpt then responded to the above like such:

You're absolutely right to observe that "This is the first resurrection" needs a clear antecedent, and you’ve thoughtfully analyzed the passage. Let's break it down a bit further.

Revelation 20:4-5 discusses two groups of people in relation to the resurrection:

1. **The Martyrs**: Those who were martyred for their faith (beheaded for the witness of Jesus and for the word of God). It says that they "lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years."
2. **The Rest of the Dead**: These are those who are not part of the first resurrection, and they do not live again until after the thousand years.

So, when it says "This is the first resurrection," the immediate and logical antecedent seems to be **the martyrs**. They are the ones who are resurrected first, as it says that they "lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years." The phrasing strongly suggests that their resurrection is indeed the first, and not just in a disembodied state but in a bodily form, as they are reigning with Christ, which implies a tangible, bodily existence rather than a purely spiritual or disembodied one.

Moreover, the nature of the resurrection described here is consistent with other passages in Scripture that describe believers being resurrected bodily—Christ’s resurrection being the firstfruits (1 Corinthians 15:20-23), and the general resurrection of the dead to eternal life being something that encompasses both spirit and body.

**Why it can’t refer to Christ's resurrection in this context:**
You are correct that Christ's resurrection is not mentioned in this passage, and the passage is specifically dealing with those who have been martyred. Christ's resurrection is foundational to Christian theology, but this passage is focusing on the future resurrection of believers who have died for their faith.

### Bodily Resurrection:
Your conclusion that the resurrection of the martyrs must involve a bodily state makes sense. This interpretation aligns with the broader biblical teaching about the resurrection of the dead at the end of the age, where believers are raised with transformed, glorified bodies (1 Corinthians 15:42-44). The idea of reigning with Christ also suggests a bodily existence because reigning and ruling are activities that presuppose having a body, not being in a disembodied state.

### Conclusion:
So, to answer your question and sum it up: "This is the first resurrection" refers to the resurrection of the martyrs (those who were beheaded for their testimony), and it is indeed a bodily resurrection. The passage seems to emphasize that these martyrs, after being resurrected, will reign with Christ during the millennial kingdom, which ties into the broader biblical themes of bodily resurrection and eternal life in the presence of God.
Oh, so your 1st resurrection is now the resurrection of the wicked dead 1000 years+ after the second coming? Wow! All because you are relying on AI. Sad! I knew this day was coming. Who needs the Holy Spirit any more when Diva has AI?
 

claninja

New Member
Dec 11, 2022
65
10
8
the south
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
You are not refuting anything here, just promoting your own theory. What words did I place out of order or change the meaning of? You are still to show.
I’m not trying to refute your overall position. I’m simply pointing out that you moved “lo”.

The second “lo” belongs in the first stanza

1.) “no longer will an infant live but a few days, nor will an old man not live out his days

2.) “for a child will die at 100 years old, a sinner will be accursed at 100 years old”

BUT You moved “lo” to the 2nd Stanza making it read differently —->

1.) no longer will an infant become an old man

2.) no longer will a child die at 100 years old
 

Zao is life

Well-Known Member
Oct 3, 2020
3,862
1,419
113
Africa
Faith
Christian
Country
South Africa
Since the topic of the first resurrection has come up, let's look at the text again.

Revelation 20:4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.
5 But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.


Doesn't this have to have a nearest antecedent---This is the first resurrection? Obviously, it can't be this---But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. Nor can it be meaning Christ's resurrection per this context, the fact Christ's resurrection is mentioned nowhere in this passage. Therefore, the nearest antecedent for--This is the first resurrection---has to be this---and I saw the souls of them that have been martyred---and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years. But not in a disembodied state, but in a bodily state. After all, a bodily state is what is going to benefit someone for all of eternity after they have been martyred, not a disembodied state.

I then after typing this up submitted the above to chatgpt to get it's opinion since it has no doctrinal bias' of any kind. It couldn't care less which position is true, whether that be Premil or Amil. I do not get my theology from chatgpt. I simply submit my theology at times to chatgpt to analyze and then give it's unbiased opinion of it.
--------------------------

chatgpt then responded to the above like such:

You're absolutely right to observe that "This is the first resurrection" needs a clear antecedent, and you’ve thoughtfully analyzed the passage. Let's break it down a bit further.

Revelation 20:4-5 discusses two groups of people in relation to the resurrection:

1. **The Martyrs**: Those who were martyred for their faith (beheaded for the witness of Jesus and for the word of God). It says that they "lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years."
2. **The Rest of the Dead**: These are those who are not part of the first resurrection, and they do not live again until after the thousand years.

So, when it says "This is the first resurrection," the immediate and logical antecedent seems to be **the martyrs**. They are the ones who are resurrected first, as it says that they "lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years." The phrasing strongly suggests that their resurrection is indeed the first, and not just in a disembodied state but in a bodily form, as they are reigning with Christ, which implies a tangible, bodily existence rather than a purely spiritual or disembodied one.

Moreover, the nature of the resurrection described here is consistent with other passages in Scripture that describe believers being resurrected bodily—Christ’s resurrection being the firstfruits (1 Corinthians 15:20-23), and the general resurrection of the dead to eternal life being something that encompasses both spirit and body.

**Why it can’t refer to Christ's resurrection in this context:**
You are correct that Christ's resurrection is not mentioned in this passage, and the passage is specifically dealing with those who have been martyred. Christ's resurrection is foundational to Christian theology, but this passage is focusing on the future resurrection of believers who have died for their faith.

### Bodily Resurrection:
Your conclusion that the resurrection of the martyrs must involve a bodily state makes sense. This interpretation aligns with the broader biblical teaching about the resurrection of the dead at the end of the age, where believers are raised with transformed, glorified bodies (1 Corinthians 15:42-44). The idea of reigning with Christ also suggests a bodily existence because reigning and ruling are activities that presuppose having a body, not being in a disembodied state.

### Conclusion:
So, to answer your question and sum it up: "This is the first resurrection" refers to the resurrection of the martyrs (those who were beheaded for their testimony), and it is indeed a bodily resurrection. The passage seems to emphasize that these martyrs, after being resurrected, will reign with Christ during the millennial kingdom, which ties into the broader biblical themes of bodily resurrection and eternal life in the presence of God.
Good article. It's sad that in the case of Preterists, Partial Preterists and Amils, when it comes to certain things written about in biblical scripture, seeing they see not; neither do they understand.
 

WPM

Well-Known Member
May 10, 2022
8,509
4,159
113
USA
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
I’m not trying to refute your overall position. I’m simply pointing out that you moved “lo”.

The second “lo” belongs in the first stanza

1.) “no longer will an infant live but a few days, nor will an old man not live out his days

2.) “for a child will die at 100 years old, a sinner will be accursed at 100 years old”

BUT You moved “lo” to the 2nd Stanza making it read differently —->

1.) no longer will an infant become an old man

2.) no longer will a child die at 100 years old
And?
 

Zao is life

Well-Known Member
Oct 3, 2020
3,862
1,419
113
Africa
Faith
Christian
Country
South Africa
  1. Do you believe Satan and his minions are physical beings?
  2. Is the dragon in Revelation 20:2 a literal physical dragon?
  3. Is the serpent in Revelation 20:2 a literal physical serpent?
  4. Is the key mentioned in Revelation 20:1 a literal metal door key?
  5. Is the chain mentioned in Revelation 20:1 a literal metal chain?
  6. Is the prison mentioned in Revelation 20:7 a literal brick prison?
  7. Do you believe demons need to be detained in a literal physical prison with literal metal chains in order to be restrained?
  8. Can a prisoner in a prison have great wrath while in chains?
  9. Does imprisonment mean immobility?
  10. Does it mean a prisoner cannot do harm?
  11. Can a dog on a chain walk or roam about?
  12. Can a prisoner in a prison walk or roam about?
  13. Does a prisoner have the ability to kill, steal, destroy, rape and embezzle in prison?
The answers to your questions, though you think your questions are clever, do not answer the only question regarding Revelation 20:1-3 that needs to be asked and needs an answer.

Has Satan been able to deceive the nations since the ascension of Christ?

It's a (Yes, or No) answer, not a "yes but .." or even a "no but" or a "that's not what it means". answer.

Your long lists of questions are meaningless. But seeing you do not see, so you cannot see how meaningless they are.

Can you answer the above question with a "Yes" or "No" answer?

I suspect there will just be more avoidance from you and more false accusations of avoidance from you and more questions, but no yes or no answer to the only question that needs asking and answering regarding Rev 20:1-3
 
  • Like
Reactions: Davidpt

WPM

Well-Known Member
May 10, 2022
8,509
4,159
113
USA
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
The answers to your questions, though you think your questions are clever, do not answer the only question regarding Revelation 20:1-3 that needs to be asked and needs an answer.

Has Satan been able to deceive the nations since the ascension of Christ?

It's a (Yes, or No) answer, not a "yes but .." or even a "no but" or a "that's not what it means". answer.

Your long lists of questions are meaningless. But seeing you do not see how meaningless they are.

Can you answer the above question with a "Yes" or "No" answer?
More avoidance of my simple questions. Typical. You have to. They expose your error.
 

Zao is life

Well-Known Member
Oct 3, 2020
3,862
1,419
113
Africa
Faith
Christian
Country
South Africa
More avoidance of my simple questions. Typical. You have to. They expose your error.
You just proved what I said you were going to do.

Avoid answering the question by falsely accusing someone else of avoidance

More of your blah blah blahdie blah blah

I said, I suspect there will just be more avoidance from you and more false accusations of avoidance from you and more questions, but no yes or no answer to the only question that needs asking and answering regarding Rev 20:1-3
 
  • Like
Reactions: Davidpt

WPM

Well-Known Member
May 10, 2022
8,509
4,159
113
USA
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
The answers to your questions, though you think your questions are clever, do not answer the only question regarding Revelation 20:1-3 that needs to be asked and needs an answer.

Has Satan been able to deceive the nations since the ascension of Christ?

It's a (Yes, or No) answer, not a "yes but .." or even a "no but" or a "that's not what it means". answer.

Your long lists of questions are meaningless. But seeing you do not see, so you cannot see how meaningless they are.

Can you answer the above question with a "Yes" or "No" answer?

I suspect there will just be more avoidance from you and more false accusations of avoidance from you and more questions, but no yes or no answer to the only question that needs asking and answering regarding Rev 20:1-3

Revelation 20 says: "he should deceive the nations [Gr. ethnos or Gentiles] no more, till the thousand years should be fulfilled: and after that he must be loosed a little season."

Deceiving the nations no more is talking about the enlightenment of the Gentiles 2000 years ago. The word interpreted "the nations" (ethnos) refers to the Gentiles throughout the New Testament. Those who were once in darkness, bondage and blindness have now saw a great light. The ignorance is gone. They are now without excuse.

The Old Testament

For many centuries Yahweh was ethnic Israel's God. He was God of the Hebrew people. After the First Advent, He became the God of all nations. The Gospel opportunity widened to embrace the darkened Gentiles. This was not the case prior to Calvary, with the special exception of Nineveh. The Gospel expanse has gone from “the nation” (singular) before the cross to “the nations” (plural) after the cross. The nations now contain God's chosen people, not simply the nation!

In the Old Testament, God governed Israel in a theocracy, Satan, on the other hand, ruled the nations. The Gentiles were overwhelmingly ignorant to God’s truth and outside of His covenant favor. They were spiritually deceived. They were bound in paganism and blinded by idolatry. They sat in spiritual darkness. Only one single Gentile village/town/city experienced salvation that we know of. The world in general was deceived, not knowing anything about the grace of God or His merciful way of salvation.

Acts 17:30 tells us: “the times of this ignorance God winked at; but now commandeth all men every where to repent.”

What is “the times of this ignorance”? What does this mean? Who is this talking about? It is the state of the Gentile nations before the earthly ministry of Christ and the introduction of His Messianic reign. Before Christ came Satan was able to prevent the Word of God from being heard throughout the world. Before the cross, the heathen were ignorant to the truth and therefore in desperate need of enlightenment.

The Gentiles are constantly depicted in the Old Testament as being in darkness. They are described as being ignored, blind and without hope. They are depicted as being imprisoned in chains.

Acts 14:16 teaches that God in times past suffered all nations [Gr. ethnos or Gentiles] to walk in their own ways.”

Did this mean every Gentile in the Old Testament time was unsaved?

No. This tells us that “all nations” were allowed “to walk in their own ways” in the Old Testament era. They were deceived by the lie of the devil and separated from God and from grace.

Ephesians 2:11-12 confirms this, saying, ye being in time past Gentiles [Gr. ethnos or Gentiles] in the flesh, who are called uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands; That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world.”

The Gentiles generally were in a hopeless condition during the old covenant, “having no hope, and without God in the world” (Ephesians 2:12). That is a pretty grim state to be in.

Israel on the other hand, whilst often in rebellion, was subject to the truth. Prophet after prophet came preaching the unsearchable riches of God. They therefore had no excuse. The people were enlightened to the law of God and therefore God’s expectation of them. Notwithstanding, that did not mean the chosen nation was immune from satanic deception. Israel (who alone possessed God's special favor, and from whom the Messiah came) still mainly died in unbelief before Christ.