I am not forcing anything, but simply disagreeing with your assessment. How do you account for the fact that there will be death during the New Heavens and New Earth of Isaiah 65:17-25?
Isaiah 65:20 is figurative text. Think about this. If that was talking about death during the new heavens and new earth, that would mean you would have to believe that no one would mourn over anyone's death during that time because the verse immediately preceding that one talks about no more weeping and crying at that point. Why would you be willing to believe something as nonsensical as that?
Look at the similarities in these passages:
Isaiah 65:17
For, behold, I create new heavens and a new earth: and the former shall not be remembered, nor come into mind. 18
But be ye glad and rejoice for ever in that which I create: for, behold, I create Jerusalem a rejoicing, and her people a joy. 19 And I will rejoice in Jerusalem, and joy in my people:
and the voice of weeping shall be no more heard in her, nor the voice of crying. 20 There shall be no more thence an infant of days, nor an old man that hath not filled his days: for the child shall die an hundred years old; but the sinner being an hundred years old shall be accursed.
Revelation 21:1
And I saw a new heaven and a new earth: for the first heaven and the first earth were passed away; and there was no more sea. 2 And
I John saw the holy city, new Jerusalem, coming down from God out of heaven, prepared as a bride adorned for her husband. 3 And I heard a great voice out of heaven saying, Behold, the tabernacle of God is with men, and he will dwell with them, and they shall be his people, and God himself shall be with them, and be their God. 4
And God shall wipe away all tears from their eyes;
and there shall be no more death,
neither sorrow, nor crying, neither shall there be any more pain:
for the former things are passed away.
It's very clear that these passages refer to the same new heavens and new earth. John basically paraphrased Isaiah 65:17-20. Isaiah 65:20 is figurative text describing no more death. Think about it. A 100 year old child? That's clearly figurative and represents the fact that no matter how much time goes by in eternity, no one will age. Even at 100 years old a person would still be a child. You can't take that literally. It's a figurative way of referring to eternity in a way that people at the time could understand. People didn't have any concept of eternity back then like we do now because of having the New Testament.
Also, notice how Revelation 21:1 says that the new heavens and new earth appear after the first heavens and first earth pass away. The first heaven and first earth refer to the heaven and earth that exist right now. You have the new heavens and new earth of Revelation 21 appearing after the first new heavens and first new earth pass away instead. So, your view contradicts what Revelation 21:1 says.
Peter is speaking concerning the New Heavens and the New Earth of Isaiah 65:17-25 which starts at the beginning of the 1000 years.
2 Peter 3:13 Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for
new heavens and a new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness.
Peter talked about a new heavens and new earth "wherein dwelleth righteousness". That implies that only righteousness will dwell there. It would be a pointless statement for him to make if wickedness also dwelt there, as you believe is the case with Isaiah 65:17-25.
I suggest that this speaks of the many catastrophes that occur now. Isaiah 65:17-25 clearly states that death will occur in this period. Why ignore this detail?
Why ignore that it states that there will be no more weeping and crying at that time? This forces you to believe a ridiculous notion that no one will mourn the death of their loved ones during that time.
I consider I have stated sufficient to substantiate the 1000 year reign of Jesus.
I completely disagree.
Yes. Seeing you have mentioned that I am a Christadelphian, we have a very thorough exposition of the Temple of Ezekiel's Prophecy by Henry Sulley 1892, 325 pages. He was a Bible student and an Architect. How do Amils interpret all the detail of Ezekiel chapters 40-48?
It was a conditional prophecy and the conditions weren't met (Ezekiel 43:9-11). To think that animal sacrifices and offerings will be reinstated in the future is an insult to the "once for all" sacrifice that Jesus made which made the old covenant and it's animal sacrifices obsolete forever.
This is an extensive exposition of Psalm 110:1 and fully agrees with my view. Psalm 110:1 is further expounded in the following, showing that Jesus will sit upon the Throne of David in Jerusalem in the future:
Revelation 3:21–22 (KJV): 21 To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne. 22 He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches.
Like all Premills, you are being evasive. Please address what I said about Acts 2:29-36. Please let me know what you think about what I said and please tell me how you interpret it.
We do not accept that the soul is a separate entity. Those who "sleep" are actually dead and have returned to the dust Genesis 3:19, Daniel 12:1-3. Man is a mortal soul and does not possess an immortal soul
So, do you think Paul didn't now what he was talking about when he said this...
1 Thessalonians 5:23 And the very God of peace sanctify
you wholly; and I pray God
your whole spirit and soul and body be preserved blameless unto the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.
Paul indicated that "you wholly" consists of "your whole spirit and soul and body". So, we have a spirit and soul and body. Those who sleep are only bodily dead, but their souls and spirits are not dead. How do you interpret this passage...
Revelation 6:9 And when he had opened the fifth seal, I saw under the altar the souls of them that were slain for the word of God, and for the testimony which they held: 10 And they cried with a loud voice, saying, How long, O Lord, holy and true, dost thou not judge and avenge our blood on them that dwell on the earth? 11 And white robes were given unto every one of them; and it was said unto them, that they should rest yet for a little season, until their fellowservants also and their brethren, that should be killed as they were, should be fulfilled.
If the soul isn't a separate entitty then how could John have seen the souls of those who were dead? He was clearly seeing a part of these martyrs besides their body and he indicated that they were conscious.
And how do you interpret Luke 16:19-31 which has Jesus portraying people who are dead but conscious?
And what do you do with a passage like this...
Mark 12:26 And as touching the dead, that they rise: have ye not read in the book of Moses, how in the bush God spake unto him, saying, I
am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob? 27 He is not the God of the dead, but the God of the living: ye therefore do greatly err.
God is not the God of the dead, but of the living. If soul sleep was true and those who have physically died are completely dead and not alive in any way, then that would mean God is not the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. You are making the same mistake that the Sadducees made in the sense that you think when someone dies they completely lose consciousness. In their case they believed that was the case forever, but you still make the same mistake that they do in a sense and Jesus said regarding that mistake: "ye therefore do greatly err".
How about the fact that Moses and Elijah, who are physically dead, spoke to Jesus at His transfiguration? How was that possible if soul sleep was true?
I suggest that I have adequately answered this.
Honestly, I don't think you have come anywhere near adequately answering anything.