Strength and Honor: Triumphing over Feminism

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Wrangler

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Good question.
While I appreciate your assessment of my question, I’d appreciate even more that you provide an actual, literal answer. LOL.

It’s the flesh that says it can’t be both. I do see the literal.
Does that imply you do not see the figurative?

And more importantly, are you admitting that they can be both spiritual and figurative? That it is only ego (flesh) that denies it can be both?
 
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Wrangler

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If you would pay attention, you are the one saying it can’t be both
<sigh> You seem willfully ignorant. ‘Spiritual’ is not a type of language usage. Topics can be spiritual but not language.

Language is either literal or figurative. It’s really simple.

I’m not asking you to drop the literal perspective, or figurative language but I am asking you to at least consider another perspective, without calling it a tortured perspective.
Can’t do it. There is a dichotomy of language. Literal or figurative. Consult an English book.

There is a dichotomy of topics, spiritual or non-spiritual. What kind of dichotomy of language are you asserting; literal or Spiritual? What English language book did you learn this from?
 

Wrangler

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You asked ‘Not sure why you ask this question but it really is besides the point I made about inequality, i.e., no parallel verse for husbands.’
It’s not beside the point.
This post seems as a stream of consciousness. You repeated what I wrote but can you acknowledge the inequality of there being no Scriptural equivalent of Numbers 5 for husbands?
 

Wrangler

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You asked ‘Not sure why you ask this question but it really is besides the point I made about inequality, i.e., no parallel verse for husbands.’
It’s not beside the point.
This post seems as a stream of consciousness. You repeated what I wrote but can you acknowledge the inequality of there being no Scriptural equivalent of Numbers 5 for husbands
 

Wynona

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Very important. Ownership by feminism is seen aytomatically as abuse but men who feel ownership in their communities and families overcome a lot to cultivate and improve society. This lack of ownership is why society is crumbling today.
 

VictoryinJesus

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While I appreciate your assessment of my question, I’d appreciate even more that you provide an actual, literal answer. LOL.
I did. My answer is ….the reason it can’t be both is because the literal always takes center stage. That IS my answer. The literal won’t allow it to be both. To be clear. That is not my saying it can’t be both. It can. But one is dominant trying to keep the other from being seen.

When I first started reading the word I had all the healing verses taped to my walls. It was the verses others told me to claim for physical healing. After about a year I realized what I needed more than physical healing was Spiritual healing. Same thing …if you brought up any suggestion those physical healing verses could be speaking of Spiritual healing …it was and is a “no. It’s literal.” Same with tithing. If you ever suggest it’s not money. That is not something I’ve found welcomed in a discussion. It’s not that I don’t acknowledge money. It’s not that I don’t acknowledge physical healing. It’s that there is another conversation other than money and the physical that is valuable to have also. You may say that is not true …people do want to talk about the Spiritual. I’ve been here for years it’s not usually a hot topic.
Does that imply you do not see the figurative?

And more importantly, are you admitting that they can be both spiritual and figurative? That it is only ego (flesh) that denies it can be both?
Instead of figurative can we say Spiritual? Instead of literal and figurative? It will help me if we discuss literal and Spiritual.

“You asked does that imply you do not see the Spiritual?” no. that does not imply I do not see the Spiritual. Wait. Now I’m confused again. You said “Language is either literal or figurative. It’s really simple.” One minute you say “they can be both spiritual and figurative?” The next minute it’s either literal or figurative?”

You asked “and more importantly, are you admitting that they can be both spiritual and figurative? That is only ego (flesh) that denies it can be both.” What? I do not deny it can be both literal and Spiritual. You are the one saying when and if it is literal and Spiritual.

How is the Woman saved through childbirth?
 
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VictoryinJesus

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This post seems as a stream of consciousness. You repeated what I wrote but can you acknowledge the inequality of there being no Scriptural equivalent of Numbers 5 for husbands
How is the Woman saved through childbirth?
 

VictoryinJesus

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Can’t do it. There is a dichotomy of language. Literal or figurative. Consult an English book.

There is a dichotomy of topics, spiritual or non-spiritual. What kind of dichotomy of language are you asserting; literal or Spiritual? What English language book did you learn this from?
You asked “what kind of dichotomy of language are you asserting; literal or Spiritual?”

Answer: Spiritual.

You asked: What English language book did you learn this from?

Answer: isn’t it clear yet that I’m not that smart. It didn’t come from an English book. Obviously. That doesn’t make it nothing of value though. I told you late one night I saw Jesus Christ in Numbers 5. Do you see Him in Numbers 5. If you did…you would not keep asking me about the husbands.

How is the Woman saved through childbirth? Interested to hear your answer.
 

Wrangler

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From today's devotional reading. Numbers 12. Miriam jealous of Moses and God smite her leprous. While Aaron was with Miriam when she complained, he was not stricken. Inequality.

Here is more inequality. v8 God speaks to Moses face to face - clearly, not in riddles. Using our terminology, God speaks to other prophets figuratively in dreams but to Moses he speaks literally. In fact, there is comparatively very little figurative use of language in the Pentateuch.

Interestingly, in v7, God talks about "when there are prophets among you" referring to unnamed people other than the siblings Aaron, Miriam and the baby Moses.

Finally, inequality among the prophets for in v11, Aaron seeing and fearing Miriam turned leprous, called Moses, his baby brother, "my lord." (Yet, did not consider him equal to God). A lord not equal to God. Another Biblical inequality.
 

Urohaquc

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From today's devotional reading. Numbers 12. Miriam jealous of Moses and God smite her leprous. While Aaron was with Miriam when she complained, he was not stricken. Inequality.

Here is more inequality. v8 God speaks to Moses face to face - clearly, not in riddles. Using our terminology, God speaks to other prophets figuratively in dreams but to Moses he speaks literally. In fact, there is comparatively very little figurative use of language in the Pentateuch.

Interestingly, in v7, God talks about "when there are prophets among you" referring to unnamed people other than the siblings Aaron, Miriam and the baby Moses.

Finally, inequality among the prophets for in v11, Aaron seeing and fearing Miriam turned leprous, called Moses, his baby brother, "my lord." (Yet, did not consider him equal to God). A lord not equal to God. Another Biblical inequality.
So God punished her for her jealousy?
 

Wrangler

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So God punished her for her jealousy?
Welcome to the forums @Urohaquc. I look forward to reading your posts.

In this long thread, we are discussing the Biblical evidence for inequality, generally, and specifically, inequality between husbands and wives. @VictoryinJesus is asserting that the terms "wife" is interchangeable with "husband" so any statement about one ought to be interpretted as applying to both.

Let's start with the facts of Numbers 12. The inequality is seen in that God punished Miriam and not Aaron.

Regarding why God punished her, I don't think it was jealously but contempt for a servant of God, which God takes as contempt for him. I base this on the text and NRSV Cultural Bible study note. Regardless, God did not punish Aaron while he did punish Miriam. How do you explain that if you don't allow for inequality?
 

VictoryinJesus

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That's a great question for another thread. Please start another thread.
 
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VictoryinJesus

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In this long thread, we are discussing the Biblical evidence for inequality, generally, and specifically, inequality between husbands and wives. @VictoryinJesus is asserting that the terms "wife" is interchangeable with "husband" so any statement about one ought to be interpretted as applying to both.
You misunderstood or I haven’t been clear if your take away is that I’m asserting that the terms wife is interchangeable with husband.

Ephesians 4:13-14 until we all attain to the unity of the faith and of the knowledge of the Son of God, to mature manhood, to the measure of the stature of the fullness of Christ, [14] so that we may no longer be children, tossed to and fro by the waves and carried about by every wind of doctrine, by human cunning, by craftiness in deceitful schemes.
To clarify …I’ve asked before if that includes women also as growing up unto a mature man, to the measure of the stature of the fullness of Christ.
My husband asked this question at work and some men said “no, it only includes the men.” I can’t remember if I’ve asked you @Wrangler. I think maybe I did and you said yes, of course it includes women.” Correct me if I’m wrong. Whoever I asked though said it does include women in the fullness of Christ. Their reasoning was to the full measure of Christ is singular where the Proverbs 31 woman is not singular. But the Proverbs 31 woman is singular …it’s not the proverbs 31 women.

To clarify. In numbers I see two women. One brings forth sin unto death. As Eve with Adam. She (the woman) thought to have gone aside from the Lord and had lain with another man. If she is guilty, she drinks of the bitter water and her thigh rots and her belly swells. If she is guilty she is called the adulterous Woman. Paul connects this to Romans 7. Speaking straightforward about the adulterous Woman, married to the World of sin unto death. Bringing forth sin unto death. Where if she fails in any part of the Law, she fails in the whole law. Being called “Guilty”! From a site where others talk about why they think God is sexist:
TRIGGER WARNING
God disses Jerusalem.. Of course Jerusalem is a woman …(see they say the same thing as you do wrangler, missing that under the bold header “whorish woman” is all (men and women)who go after idols, after another bearing sin unto death. Ezekiel 16:30 How weak is your heart, saith the LORD GOD, seeing you do all these things, the work of an imperious whorish woman; (<is this the Proverbs 31 woman?)
Don’t touch menstruating women
, thats in the torah too, but here it is some more Ezekiel 18:6 And has not eaten upon the mountains, neither has lifted up his eyes to the idols of the house of Israel, neither has defiled his neighbour's wife, neither has come near to a menstruous woman
God disses again by comparing with a menstruating woman Ezekiel 36:17-18 “Son of man, when the people of Israel were living in their own land, they defiled it by their conduct and their actions. Their conduct was like a woman’s monthly uncleanness in my sight. So I poured out my wrath on them because they had shed blood in the land and because they had defiled it with their idols.

^no disputing men and women alike are in Jerusalem, don’t downplay as figurative language to soften the comparison of men and women alike …who “all” have gone astray after another —-We All are like sheep who have gone astray. That is not simplified as I’m suggesting husband and wives are interchangeable. It’s what it is. In fact considering most of the focus of Jerusalem at the time of comparing Her unto an adulterous wife were men, yes including men who were most likely accusing their own wives of adultery or as being whoreish…the primary audience of Jerusalem were men in what they accused the wives of, they are guilty of before God in going astray after another. Again, for we all are like sheep gone astray.
Bearing fruit of sin unto death.
If you want to call it interchanging the terms husband and wife, I’m not the one who wrote the Bible.

But the good news is returning to the bishop of our souls. The good Shepherd, who doesn’t abandon His sheep but cares for His sheep(His body). He is no hireling. For the hireling flees.

Second part of Numbers 5. Strangely the part you never focus on @wranger. It’s telling to me that you go immediately to the woman who is guilty and bears fruit of sin unto death…in your version( translation used) her uterus drops. She is your reason for inequality. You don’t point out the woman who is clean, not called an adulterous woman, bearing fruit …I mean she overcomes the law of jealousies pronounced “clean” “not guilty” of going after another (which Paul includes in Romans) but if her husband be dead—she is free to marry another, even him who raised from the dead, to (be saved though) childbearing unto God. (By the body of Christ). You don’t point this woman out for your reason for inequality but instead you point out the adulterous woman.

What I saw in Numbers five late one night is Jesus Christ sweating blood in the garden asking to not drink of the cup of bitterness, let it (the cup) pass from Me, Father. We would all be the adulterous woman who went astray if not for Jesus Christ stepping into the place to drink of the cup of bitterness. I saw Him take of the cup that was mine to drink(for I have gone astray after another), otherwise I would not be pronounced clean. Instead I would be sweating drinking of the cup. Him who knew no sin, being made an “earthen vessel” became weak so we could be made strong. Made like unto the likeness of sinful flesh, yet without sin. Not disputing He drank of the cup of the law of Jealousies when a wife has gone astray after another and since He begged not to drink but “submitted” unto the Father “Not My Will, but your Will be done Father” now a way is opened back unto the bishop of our souls through “obedience unto Righteousness” which Fruit (childbearing) is of and by Christ. Who unlike all the husbands before him of the Woman by the Well, who all were not her husbands, He said unto the Woman by the Well, if you would ask of Me, “I would give unto you LIVING water”

Second part of Numbers 5, if the Woman has not gone astray after another but be called no adulterous Woman —-see she is called Clean —-she conceives and bears Fruit unto God. It is through the Fruit Bourne of God the Woman is saved through childbearing. It is through childbearing unto God. Paul included, who Bourne Fruit—children unto God, raising the dead up in Christ unto Life …without any mention of glorifying God through sexual relations towards childbearing. in fact God gives the increase (one sows, another plants, God gives the increase) (this sowing, this planting is not sexual, to bear increase of “childbearing” whereby the woman is saved, where many were added and God increased. Galatians 1:20-24 Now the things which I write unto you, behold, before God, I lie not. [21] Afterwards I came into the regions of Syria and Cilicia; [22] And was unknown by face unto the churches of Judaea which were in Christ: [23] But they had heard only, That he which persecuted us in times past now preaches the faith which once he destroyed. [24] And they glorified God in me.

Romans 7 maps out the same as Numbers 5.
Married unto the world.
Or married, returned unto God, restored, reconciled called no more an adulterous Woman …no more “menstrual rags” for the Fruits of Christ are good…peace, love, forgiveness, long suffering, ….obedience unto Righteousness. Notice Eve was deceived …but the body joined to Christ is no longer deceived. Be you sober minded. For God has given unto you the Spirit of love, of power and of a sound mind. In Romans seven also…Paul speaks to “brethren” by the body of Christ you are free from the adulterous woman, from menstrual rags, you brothers are free to bring forth “childbearing” unto God. If I interchange wife and husband …then are you saying God interchanges them because Jerusalem going after idols, filled up of men also, not only the women …are referred to the adulterous “wife”. And there is only one way she is called no more the adulterous “wife” which is through Christ who drank of the bitter Water to overcome sin unto death of the deceived Woman.

Concerning Proverbs 31. No doubt every one will agree she bears good things. I mean all women are told and instructed to strive to be the Proverbs 31 Woman. her childbearing is good, correct? There is only one way that is so, the Proverbs Woman can’t be the adulterous woman whose rags are fifty menstrual rags. She has to be of God, a work of God. No more called an adulterous Woman. There is only one way that is so. someone stepped into the the law of jealousies when a woman has gone aside after another, being accused of such she is given the bitter water to drink that contains the curse. Who overcomes the curse? Or is the Woman made clean, conceives, and bears fruit …only the women folk excluding the men? “brethren” Paul obviously directs this “figurative language”? in Romans 7 … and elsewhere to “brothers” “you are of the Free Woman” and not of “the Bond Woman”

Corrected now. Sorry for all the typos.
 
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Wrangler

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I did. My answer is ….the reason it can’t be both is because the literal always takes center stage. That IS my answer. The literal won’t allow it to be both. To be clear. That is not my saying it can’t be both. It can. But one is dominant trying to keep the other from being seen.
This is a contradiction. Pick one:
A. A Bible verse can be both, figurative and Spiritual.
B. A Bible verse can NOT be both, figurative and Spiritual.
 

Mink57

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The first sentence, sex without committment, is how feminism seduces men. When I was a young Chad, I thought feminism was great. Not sure what women got out of it, but I thought it was great for the purposes of low cost sex.
Oh, b.s. on that too. Men and women have been seducing each other since the dawn of time. Even in the bible there's a whole bunch of seduction going on between BOTH parties. However...
A young man said young women today are whore's. He stays away from such feminist sexual predators. MGTOW.
Leviticus 19:19: "Do not prostitute thy daughter, to cause her to be a whore; lest the land fall to whoredom, and the land become full of wickedness."

1 Timothy 5:2: "Treat older women as you would your mother, and treat younger women with all purity as you would your own sisters."

In BOTH cases, men are to treat women accordingly. God has put the onus on MEN to behave rightly toward women. Yet, they don't.

Decades there was a movie about a 15 year old girl who ran away from home. She turned to prostitution for survival. One scene showed her sitting on the bed while a much older man started to scold her for "doing what she was doing" even going so far as to say, "..if you were MY daughter..." The woman sighed and said, "Why is it always AFTER?"

Men supposedly want to take on the role of 'protector', yet when it comes to sex, men don't want to 'protect'. And if men fail, they blame WOMEN for that.

Oh bull cookies. Firstly, it isnt "his" Patriarchal system, it's Gods. So your problem is with the Lord and not men. Didnt they ever teach you that, we wrestle not against flesh and blood...?
It's your opinion that it's God's.
That's men. That's women. Men just want a woman that's pleasent to be around and can make a good sandwich. Not someone with a bad attitude and complains about everything.
You don't speak for ALL men. You don't even speak for all GODLY men. Thank Goodness. Some men, Godly or not, actually have higher standards for themselves than merely wanting a woman to be pleasant and make a good sandwich.

Besides, in THIS day and age, so many men want a woman who WORKS outside the home. They DO share in household responsibilities.

You going to tell THOSE men that they're 'wrong'?
You seem to have deceived yourself about who's side your on and who's side we're on. And if you cant hang, go home.
Doubtful...
 

Wrangler

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@VictoryinJesus is asserting that the terms "wife" is interchangeable with "husband"

You misunderstood or I haven’t been clear if your take away is that I’m asserting that the terms wife is interchangeable with husband.
How is what you wrote different from what I wrote?

Honestly, you are all over the place these last few days.
 

Wrangler

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To clarify. In numbers I see two women.
There are no women in Numbers 5.
God disses Jerusalem.. Of course Jerusalem is a woman
Before feminism, the English language embraced sex to speak generally. The feminine was a THING of value. The masculine is a call to ACTION.

The Bible does this in referrring to the capital of Jacob as a THING of value. I do it regarding dinner and my wife has embraced the language usage. I tell her, "Dinner, she's ready."

^no disputing men and women alike are in Jerusalem, don’t downplay as figurative language to soften the comparison of men and women alike …who “all” have gone astray after another —-We All are like sheep who have gone astray.
It's totally figurative language!

Of course, the genus of human being's is that they are alike. Feminist demands an abdication of discernment. We are not equal even if we have 90 out of 100 things the same. We are unequal because of 10 out of 100 things. It's really simple.

Second part of Numbers 5. Strangely the part you never focus on @wranger. It’s telling to me that you go immediately to the woman who is guilty and bears fruit of sin unto death…in your version( translation used) her uterus drops. She is your reason for inequality.
Totally wrong. The reason Numbers 5 demonstrates Biblical inequality is that there is not an analagous passage regarding husbands. (I've said this numerous times).

It's not about a woman who is innocent or a woman who is guilty. It's that such a scenario is not anywhere in Scripture where the husband is accused by his wife, must be tested and may receive divine punishsment if guilty.
 
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