Though that appears possible to you that those can be parallel accounts let's not forget this one thing. satan does the exact same thing twice but at different times, he deceives the nations twice. And the following proves it.
1) before the thousand years satan is deceiving the nations. And 2) below proves it.
2) during the thousand years satan is no longer deceiving the nations.
3) after the thousand years satan is once again deceiving the nations.
1) and 3) equal two different times satan deceives the nations. Which then could mean there is a battle at the end of 1) just prior to the beginning of 2). And then there is another battle during 3) after that of 2).
IOW, initially, meaning 1), satan is deceiving the nations which then leads to a battle at the end. Meaning what is recorded in Revelation 19, for one. Which then leads to the beginning of the millennium following this battle, meaning 2).
The millennium then begins, meaning 2), and satan is no longer deceiving the nations because he is bound in the pit instead, and that the beast and fp have been cast into the LOF at the end of 1)
Next 2) is eventually over and that 3) begins. And it begins with satan deceiving the nations again, which then leads to another battle.
What must be asked is this since there is obviously a thousand years between that of when satan deceives the nations again. If there is a battle involving 3) which leads to satan getting cast into the LOF, thus he is no longer deceiving the nations, how could there also not be a battle at the end of 1) leading to satan no longer deceiving the nations, which then leads to 2) at the time?
How can 1) and 3) be involving the same battle that leads to satan no longer deceiving the nations if there is a thousand years between 1) and 3)? Or, how can at the end of 1) it doesn't involve a battle, but at the end of 3) it does? Doesn't both 1) and 3) lead to satan no longer deceiving the nations?
We already know per Amil, at least we Premils know, that 2) is not even true since nations are still being deceived and have never stopped being deceived for the past 2000 years, the same 2000 years Amils insist is meaning 2). Except if 2) is really meaning the last 2000 years as Amil insist, it would mean nations are no longer being deceived rather than nations are still being deceived. IOW, Amil contradicts 2) because in the real world it is plain as day that nations are still being deceived the past 2000 years.
Amil then looks basically like this. Before the thousand years satan is deceiving the nations. During the thousand years satan is still deceiving the nations. After the thousand years satan is still deceiving the nations. Yet we are to believe that Amil is the correct view and that it agrees with 1), 2), and 3) above. Ok, if you say so. Reality says otherwise though, since it is plainly obvious nations are still being deceived the past 2000 years. Something that is not even supposed to be possible during that of 2).
