Once Saved, Always Saved?

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ScottA

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No. I didn't miss the connection. Read the rest of the chapter. You are pulling out a single line and saying that is all that matters. It says, plainly, that they were called Gentiles in the past. They were strangers. NOW, they are no longer strangers. Gentile = stranger. "You are no longer a Gentile."

The new covenant is with the houses of Israel and Judah. No Gentiles are included. You get grafted in, or you stay outside.
If you want to say that gentiles that have come into Christ are no longer gentiles--say that.

But saying "You cannot show me a single verse of Scripture that says Gentiles are members of the new covenant." is just misleading--it's wrong. Being changed by God--given a new name, is not contrary to the covenant--it is the covenant.
 

Grailhunter

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WHAT??!!!

So fornication is good?

No that is not what I said...fornication is not in the scriptures. The commonly defined meaning does not appear in the scriptures, for a very good reason. LOL One of many example of man-made words and phrase that cause misunderstandings and false beliefs, which leads to misery and sin.
 

Titus

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The man WHO chooses Gods WAY, to “freely Give” his life to God...
IS “Expressly Given a Particular Gift” from God, called Salvation

Gods way to save man is His gospel,
Mark 16:15-16.
You correctly teach it is left to man to choose Gods way(gospel) or reject God.
If one chooses to obey God. That salvation can only come from belief, John 3:16
And Obedience, Hebrews 5:8-9.

Jesus' gospel saves no other way.
Faith onlyism, never saved anyone because it does not meet Gods requirement of works of obedience.
Faith only lacks obedience, therefore one is trying to be saved by a faith of disobedience.

Gods gospel plan of salvation has conditions that must be met.

Belief is one, 1John 3:23-24
Also,
Repentance of sins, Acts 17:30 ; Acts 3:19; Acts 2:38
Confession of faith in Jesus, Matthew 10:32-33 ; Romans 10:9-10 ; Acts 8:37.
Forgiveness of sin in water baptism, Mark 16:15-16 ; Acts 2:38 ; Acts 22:16 ; Acts 10:47-48 ; Acts 16:33 ; 1Peter 3:20-21.

Once Jesus shed blood on the cross saves you by washing all your sins away.
You must live in faithfulness to God, Revelation 2:10.
If you do not continue to be faithfull, you forfeit your salvation, unless the Christian repents, 1John 1:9.
If the Christian decides they no longer want to live for Jesus, there no longer remains any sacrifice for his sins,
Hebrews 10:26-30.
Those once saved will be lost for all eternity as those who never obeyed the gospel of Jesus Christ,
Hebrews 6:4-6.
 

Grailhunter

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Have you ever been on a Bible translation committee?

Life long student of Christianity....universities in five countries. LOL
Put your hat on....here is the truth. Johnny Appleseed of Truth at your service.

Fornication

Why we should not make up words and stick them in the Bible, because they cause misunderstandings and false beliefs that can span over a thousand years.


The Greek word porneia means prostitute or associated with prostitutes. Which was not a negative term in the Greco-Roman culture. But the Christian religion thought differently. The New Testament was written mostly in Greek, a Pagan Language. When the Apostles were writing the New Testament they were tasked with using a Pagan language that did not reflect Christian morals. So the Christians adjusted the words and definitions to convey their thoughts. There are variances to the Greek word porneia that define various sexual activities….all of which Christianity considers sinful.

The false beliefs associated with the word fornication start a long long time ago. If you noticed there was no wedding ceremony or vows in Eden. And then you can read the rest of the Bible and find no requirement for wedding ceremonies or vows. Yep! That is right the Bible does not state a requirement for a wedding ceremony Old or New Testament. People formed marriages as God described… For this reason a man shall leave his father and his mother, and be joined to his wife; and they shall become one flesh. Genesis 2:24 Neither the Old or New Testament state a requirement for wedding ceremonies. It was about 1500 years after the biblical period that Christianity developed a requirement for weddings ceremonies and vows, and that is a fact.


Christianity has lumped a lot of Greek words into the word Fornication as seen in some definitions of the word, but the word does not appear in any scripture.

Some examples:
noun
πορνεία
prostitution, whoring, harlotry, whoredom,
συνουσία
fornication, coition, intercourse, copulation

From the Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance
illicit sexual intercourse
adultery, fornication, homosexuality, lesbianism, intercourse with animals etc. sexual intercourse with close relatives; Lev. 18 sexual intercourse with a divorced man or woman; Mk. 10:11-12 The worship of idols of the defilement of idolatry, as incurred by eating the sacrifices offered to idols


But Fornication is not a translational error it is man-made word that made its way into the 16th and 17th century translations of the Bible, but still this word did not originate in these Bibles.

When the Greek text was translated into the Latin Vulgate, (circa 404 AD) as fornicatio, variants of the Greek word porneia were lumped into the word fornicatio. Then translated into the English word fornication and was used in the original Tyndale, Geneva, and King James Version of the Bible.

Like I said, part of the problem was that the New Testament was an attempt to write Christian moral standards using a Pagan language…ie the Greek language that did not have words that reflected Christian standards. The Greeks - Romans did not have the same moral standards that Christians had. For example; If you told a Roman solider that he sinned, it meant that his arrow missed the target….no moral implication. So the Christians writers were taking Greek words and adjusting the moral definitions of them. Why? In the Greco-Roman culture various sexual activities were not considered immoral. It did not matter if it was temple prostitutes or orgies. Married Roman men were free to have sex with who they wanted…female or male. In the Roman culture adultery only pertained to wives. By Christian standards this was a disgusting arrangement. So Christian writers were tasked with conveying sexual morality from a culture that was without sexual morals and their language reflected the absence of words to describe sexual immorality. Now was all this confusing to the translators of the scriptures, it is a matter of debate.

Porneia in the Greek society is mostly a reference to prostitution which was not wrong in their culture. For example pornography, is an ancient Greek word that means writings or paintings of prostitutes and many Roman homes had murals of sex acts and or prostitutes on their walls.
But in the Bible the Greek word Porneia and its variances appear several times in the actual scriptures. In all cases the Christian writers were using it as some form of sexual immorality.

Examples:
πορνείας·…
porneias … Sexual immorality
πορνείᾳ …
porneiai … Sexual immorality in the plural
πορνεῦσαι … To commit sexual immorality involving sexual acts
πορνείαν … Idolatry involving sexual acts
πόρνος … A person that practices sexual immorality
πόρνοι … Refering to as a group of the sexually immoral
πορνεῖαι … inflectional, more or less dirty thoughts

Appearing in these scriptures….
Matthew 5:32, 5:19, Mark 7:21, John 8:4, Acts 15:20, 5:29, 21:25, Romans 1:29* 1st Corinthians 5:1, 5:9, 5:10, 6:13, 6:18, 7:2, 10:8, 2nd Corinthians 12:21, Galatians 5:19, Ephesians 5:3, Colossians 3:5, 1st Thessalonians 4:3, Jude 1:7, Revelation 2:14, 2:14, 2:20, 2:21, 9:21, 14:8, 17:2, 17:4, 18:3, 18:19, 19:2


But in no case does it simply apply to two unmarried people having sex, for a very good reason. The New Testament does not have a lot to say about romantic love. But to say that Porneia, is sex outside of wedlock would be inaccurate, since the Bible has no requirements for wedding ceremonies or vows. Marriages were formed by the union and most of the time in early Christianity a lady’s father would chose who they would marry, as was practiced in most Old Testament unions of marriages.

The evolution of the word Fornicate or Fornication
Fornicate comes from the Latin word fornicatio which the root of this word fornix means arch or vaulted ceiling. In Ancient Rome, it was known that prostitutes would wait for their customers out of the hot sun or rain in areas that had cover…vaulted ceilings. The Latin word fornix became a euphemism for brothels and the Latin verb fornicare referred to a man visiting a brothel. Meaning a man being serviced by prostitutes.

Of course then St. Jerome’s Latin Vulgate translation of the scriptures used a variant of that….fornicatio and lumped all the Greek variances under that word.


The first recorded use in English is in the 14th century in a poem called the Cursor Mundi.

The first English Bibles to use the word fornication was the Bishop’s Bible---Church of England 1568, the Catholic Bible called the Douay-Rheims Bible (early 1600’s) and then the other Protestant Bibles followed suite examples; the Tyndale Bible Geneva Bible and the King James Version of the Bible, 16th and 17th centuries respectively.

So bottom line, marriages in the Bible were formed by the union. This is a biblical and historical fact. Even if the Hebrew families held a marriage celebration, there was no Hebrew word for wedding nor any biblically stated requirement for ceremonies or vows....just the Bridal Chamber where the couple consummated their marriage. Modern Jews still use a symbolic bridal chamber that is more of a canopy.

The fact that it is the union that forms a marriage still exists in civil laws. In most states and countries a couple that does not have sex after the wedding ceremony (consummate) can get their marriage annulled.
continued....
 
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Grailhunter

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Fornication is a well known case study in how man-made terms and phrases are false and usually develop into false beliefs and as in this case can cause sin. For example; a man and a woman fall in love and have sex and then from there on remain together, from the biblical perceptive, they are married. But Christians, believing various false beliefs can condemn them because of what they think Fornication means…two people that have not had a wedding ceremony having sex and living together, ergo the term "shacking up."

Then people believing they are “living in sin” may make the couple feel unwelcome in church and could turn them away from Christianity. Which are the only sins that occurred here. The sin of gossip, the sin of falsely accusing people of a sin, the sin of turning them away Christianity. And then calling their children bastards.

Had a preacher tell me that the normal attraction that couples in love feel for each other is lust and so all marriages are formed by lust. That would be completely wrong. God described the process that is correct…. For this reason a man shall leave his father and his mother, and be joined to his wife; and they shall become one flesh. God designed men and women to be attracted to each other and form marriages and families. No sin occurs in the process that God designed.

Then according to Augustine (circa 354-430 AD) the sex act being sinful passed the sin of Adam and Eve to the babies, calling it original sin. Which is another manmade term that does not appear in the Bible, but has been taught to Christians. Original Sin is another false belief. This produced the belief that babies go to hell.

It is better explained that Adam and Eve and their offspring promulgated the nature of man to be sinful. Mankind took after Adam and Eve’s character but it was not sex that caused it, no more than a son having his father’s nose. It is not because sex is evil that caused the son’s nose…a trait of his parent.


Fornication is a good study into how man-made terms and phrases that are not in the Bible, can become popular and can introduce false beliefs that can remain for centuries and cause sin, misery, atrocities, and death not to mention, skewing the meaning of the scriptures.

Of course couples having casual sex is a sin, ie one night stands and or whoremongering…prostitutes, etc, and fall under the designation of sexual sins and are defined in modern translations as sexual immorality….Which is much more accurate.

But then creating and adding words to the Bible, what kind of sin is that? People in the past had a personnel belief or in this case a distorted view of sex, so they create a word and a definition that was not in the scriptures and inserted it in the Bible. Some people have respect for the scriptures and the Bible and know that adding to the scriptures in this manner is said to have a curse involved with it. In this case they deceived millions for centuries, how serious is that sin? It has cause harm and sorrow and sin for centuries, is that serious?

Of course Wedding Ceremonies was one of those things that God taught us after the biblical area. A very good thing! I love big weddings and celebrations, in fact I think I could be wedding planner....celebrations and doting on the bride. And this is suppose to be a time of joy and happiness, but those that created the word fornication wanted to demonize sex as a whole. That romance is even evil. Like the preacher that told me that a man and woman's desire for each other during dating was lust and so all marriages are formed from lust. When a word is created and given the power of the scriptures, it can do a lot of harm.
 
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Bible Highlighter

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Now there is something we actually agree on. :) I will never forget on the CF site where you told LGW:

"There is a point of copying and pasting, and then there is copying and pasting crazy large walls of texts for multiple pages to the point of ridiculousness. A lot of copying and pasting here that will not be read by your average reader unless they are already biased in keeping the Old Law. No doubt you use this tactic to make it look like you know what you are talking about on this topic, but in reality it contradicts Scripture (like Colossians 2:14-17). You make it impossible for anyone to reply to you, and that's the way you like it."

Excellent observation! :)

It is nice that we can agree on some things.
Thank you for being nice.

Blessings be unto you the Lord.
 
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Michiah-Imla

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@Grailhunter

Keep that load of leaven away from me.

That’s a truck load of leaven there!

And it only takes a little leaven to leaven the whole lump.

You’re leavened big time!

“Thy wisdom and thy knowledge, it hath perverted thee” (Isaiah 47:10)
 

Titus

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Danthemailman, give me scripture that teaches justification means to outwardly show others you are righteous.
That is taught nowhere in scripture.

You need to stop making up definitions for the word justification.
You are inserting your ideas into the text.
You are speaking for James. Let James speak for himself.
James 2:24
James taught faith alone does not justify men.
Only faith and obedience to God, can one be justified by God, James 2:21
Hebrews 5:8-9
Only the saved are justified.
James makes works a condition that must be met in order to be justified.
Therefore no one is saved says James unless one has a obedient faith.

You need to show where James taught faith alone is not dead.
Give the passage.
 

Grailhunter

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@Grailhunter

Keep that load of leaven away from me.

That’s a truck load of leaven there!

And it only takes a little leaven to leaven the whole lump.

You’re leavened big time!

“Thy wisdom and thy knowledge, it hath perverted thee” (Isaiah 47:10)

The truth can be shocking! You can lead a horse to water, but you cannot make him drink.
 

Eternally Grateful

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Whoa! Talk about confession through projection!

Is Jesus the Savior of the whole world? Then everyone is saved! That is the logic you are employing. Yes. God is the God of the Jews and of anyone else who wants to join the Jews. The Gentiles are invited to be grafted into Israel. They are not invited to start their own religion.

Galatians 3:28 says nothing about Gentiles. It says "Jews" and "Greeks." "Greeks" is a term used for Hellenized Jews.

Ephesians 2 explains that Gentiles who call on Jesus are no longer Gentiles, but fellow citizens with the saints of Israel.

Gentiles are the nations. National identity is based on the god that the nation worships. Only Israel worships the Elohim of Israel. The Moabites, the Ammonites, the Canaanites and all the other nations had THEIR gods. Israel has its Elohim.

A person joins Israel, or remains a heathen. That's how it works.

Romans 2
Therefore if the uncircumcision keep the righteousness of the law, shall not his uncircumcision be counted for circumcision? If a non-Jew obeys the Torah, he is considered a Jew.

27 And shall not uncircumcision which is by nature, if it fulfil the law, judge thee, who by the letter and circumcision dost transgress the law? If a former Gentile obeys the Law, he has the right to judge a Jew that violates it.

28 For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh: Being circumcised in the flesh is not what matters.

29 But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God. What matters is the circumcision of the heart. God will praise the one who circumcises his heart and obeys the Torah.

Deuteronomy 10:16, Deuteronomy 30:6, Jeremiah 4:4
Yawn

salvation was in the world before the first Jew
 
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Michiah-Imla

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The truth can be shocking! You can lead a horse to water, but you cannot make him drink.

I have drunk of the pure waters.

And your coming along and trampling over it with your feet:

“Seemeth it a small thing unto you to have eaten up the good pasture, but ye must tread down with your feet the residue of your pastures? and to have drunk of the deep waters, but ye must foul the residue with your feet? And as for my flock, they eat that which ye have trodden with your feet; and they drink that which ye have fouled with your feet.” (Ezekiel 34:18-19)

Get into the King James Bible and get cleaned up!
 

Happy Trails

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If you want to say that gentiles that have come into Christ are no longer gentiles--say that.

But saying "You cannot show me a single verse of Scripture that says Gentiles are members of the new covenant." is just misleading--it's wrong. Being changed by God--given a new name, is not contrary to the covenant--it is the covenant.


No. It is not misleading. It is not wrong. It merely contradicts what you inherited.

Gentiles are not in the new covenant. The antinomian philosophy of the Eurocentric Theological Model teaches a number of anti-Jewish attitudes. Not the least of which is the idea that Christians should not obey the Commandments of YHVH. They claim they should not sin, but refuse to acknowledge what the NT identifies as sin. It is amazingly self-contradictory. When I read the Bible, I realized how wrong and perverted that philosophy is. That's why I left.

Jeremiah 16:19
 

Grailhunter

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I have drunk of the pure waters.

And your coming along and trampling over it with your feet:

“Seemeth it a small thing unto you to have eaten up the good pasture, but ye must tread down with your feet the residue of your pastures? and to have drunk of the deep waters, but ye must foul the residue with your feet? And as for my flock, they eat that which ye have trodden with your feet; and they drink that which ye have fouled with your feet.” (Ezekiel 34:18-19)

Get into the King James Bible and get cleaned up!

LOL...you do what ya want....Freedom of religion...right? I gave you the truth and you can look it up...or not...if you prefer false beliefs we can go on into that topic because there is a long list.

When truth conflicts with your own beliefs....that is pretty serious.

Ask them that have been caught up in cults.
 

Bible Highlighter

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Salvation by works is NOT what the parable is teaching as I already throughly explained in post #1197, but apparently, the truth just went right over your head.. sigh.

To make your point for Matthew 25 in the “Parable of the Talents”: You pointed to the Israelites who were led out of Egypt (as a whole) in how they were called servants (Leviticus 25:55) and yet you conclude by this that they were never saved because they fell in the wilderness. I don't believe that. I believe they started out saved, but they later lost their salvation in the wilderness (i.e. a barren region, desert like place). How so?

Well, 1 Corinthians 10:1-5 says,

1 “Moreover, brethren, I would not that ye should be ignorant, how that all our fathers were under the cloud, and all passed through the sea;
2 And were all baptized unto Moses in the cloud and in the sea;
3 And did all eat the same spiritual meat;
4 And did all drink the same spiritual drink: for they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them: and that Rock was Christ.
5 But with many of them God was not well pleased: for they were overthrown in the wilderness.”​

In other words, the Israelites are said to have drank of that spiritual Rock and that Rock was Christ. This was in their initial salvation when they were obeying Moses in putting the blood on the doorposts, in being led out of Egypt, and in crossing the red sea. So when they later fell in the wilderness, they were then resisting the Holy Spirit and sinned and departed from the living God.

Also, again, the unprofitable servant was not cast out because he was not converted. That is your addition to the text that the Bible does not specifically say.

He was cast out because he was unprofitable.

Matthew 25:30

“And cast ye the unprofitable servant into outer darkness: there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.”​

Yet, we know that the servant who was faithful over a few things was told to enter into the joy of His Lord.

Matthew 25:21

“His lord said unto him, Well done, thou good and faithful servant: thou hast been faithful over a few things, I will make thee ruler over many things: enter thou into the joy of thy lord.”​

You said:
It's not that we must have works in order to become saved

The word become means to begin to be.
This is erroneous. Nowhere did I say that we start off or begin to be saved when we start to produce works. As I told you before. We start off in being saved by God's grace without works when we receive Jesus Christ as our Savior (in the 1st aspect of salvation). In other words, if a person accepts Jesus Christ as their Savior before they die on their hospital bed, they will be saved by God's grace without works (Ephesians 2:8-9). But if they were to live out their faith, and they were to continue with the Lord in walking with Him, they will then naturally enter the Sanctification Process. 2 Thessalonians 2:13 says that God has chosen you to salvation through Sanctification of the Spirit and a belief of the truth. Works, putting away sin, living holy, and keeping oneself unspotted from the world is all a part of our Sanctification.

In other words, works do not help us to become saved, but works (Sanctification) is merely the continuation of our salvation that begin with first being saved by God's grace (without works).

You said:
but that we WILL have works IF we truly are saved. Works-salvationists typically have this backwards.

Again, you’re stating a contradiction here. You say authentic faith that saves will have works, but those works in and of themselves do not save. Again, even if the works were not salvific in and of themselves, the fact that you need works to show a true faith means that works is a required part of salvation. For do you believe a Christian can live out his faith over many years and not have works and be saved? If you say... “yes” you are being consistent with your words. If you say... “no” then you are not being consistent with your words.

You said:
It's painfully obvious to me that you just don't have ears to hear and I am just wasting my time beating a dead horse. Not trying to sound harsh, but that's just how I feel. ;) You seem to be on a mission (through your long winded posts full of scripture twisting, wrongly dividing the word of truth, confusing justification with ongoing sanctification and faith with works etc..) in order to draw disciples after yourself and get them to buy into your "type 2 works salvation" (holier than thou) gospel. Well I'm not buying it but good luck with your mission.

Well, no offense, but I see your belief as twisting Scripture and not rightly dividing the Word. But one just saying so does not mean one is correct. The real proof is backing up one's claims with the Bible, and not our own imaginative words added to what the Bible says.

Anyways, Justification means to be: Declared just or righteous. I prefer not to use the term Justification by big brand named Theologians anymore in reference to being saved by God's grace because the Bible teaches we are justified by works and not by faith alone (James 2:24). Meaning, we are justified by both faith and works. So instead of using the word “Justification,” I prefer to use the word “Gods grace” or “God's grace through faith” (Instead of Justification). However, the problem I see is that you redefine the word “justification” in the Bible when it refers to works (When the Bible uses the same word “justification” for both faith and works in James 2:24).

full


As for my using long winded posts:

I would say that your posts can be long at times, too.
It would be inappropriate of me to not give a proper reply with what I know God's Word when there are people out there looking for the truth. So it's not just really for your benefit alone but it is for honest truth seekers who are good Bereans.

In any event, we can agree to disagree in love and respect.

May you be well in the Lord, Dan.

With loving kindness to you in Christ,

Sincerely,

Bible Highlighter.
 
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Bible Highlighter

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Right. Stop striving against the Law.

Well, I am not striving against the Law, friend. A brief one quick rebuttal is not striving or endlessly arguing against their position on keeping the Old Law (or the 613 Laws of Moses).

Striving means this:

full


Strive or striving means to make great efforts. It means to struggle or fight vigorously.

Source:
STRIVE English Definition and Meaning | Lexico.com

I did not make any great efforts or struggle and fight vigorously against their position involving the Law.
 

Titus

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Again, you stating a contradiction here. You say authentic faith that saves will have works, but those works in and of themselves do not save. Again, even if the works were not salvific in and of themselves, the fact that you need works to show a true faith means that works is a required part of salvation. For do you believe a Christian can live out his faith over many years and not have works and be saved? If you say... “yes” you are being consistent with your words. If you say... “no” then you are not being consistent with your words.

Exactly!
The only faith onlyist sect I know that do not contradict their doctrine is the hyper grace folks.

They teach you are saved by just belief in Jesus.
Since salvation is already given by faith only.
And they believe in the false doctrine of OSAS.
They teach that once saved by belief and no works,

IT DOES NOT MATTER HOW MUCH WICKED SIN I COMMIT AND LIVE IN, I CANNOT BE LOST. NO WORKS OF ANY KIND NEEDED!
Because as you, with brilliant logic, rightfully said,
If saved by faith only, then no works ever are required to be saved. Otherwise the contradiction.
 
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