Davidpt
Well-Known Member
That was what I have warned them about infidel Josephus for a long time before you came here. They are defending Josephus because of their flawed 70AD theories to build a doctrine. They do not understand that the fallen stones of the temple are PEOPLE of the congregation - the temple of Christ's body. Not physical stones. (Matthew 24:1-2, John 2:18-20)
I believe that Matthew 24 is prophesied about the New Testament Congregation right before the Second Coming when the Elect starts to see the "SIGNS" of Christ's return. For example, when they see the abomination of desolation, and the signs in the sun, moon, and stars which point to the judgment of the New Testament congregation which must take place first before the Second Coming, per 1st Peter 4:17. This is only possible with spiritual discernment. Not carnal.
Nothing to do with 70AD, Titus, or the 1st century.
Luke 21:20 And when ye shall see Jerusalem compassed with armies, then know that the desolation thereof is nigh.
21 Then let them which are in Judaea flee to the mountains; and let them which are in the midst of it depart out; and let not them that are in the countries enter thereinto.
Since I'm assuming that you don't deny that 70 AD happened, and that you don't deny that Christians fled the city before it was destroyed, produce the Scriptures that explain how they knew to flee the city before it was destroyed since you are apparently denying that Luke 21:21 is one of those Scriptures. It is ludricrous IMO, the fact 70 AD undeniably happened, that nothing in the entire Discourse is involving 70 AD, though.
What's with all these extremist positions involving the Discourse? On one hand you have some Preterists insisting that nothing in the Discourse is involving events beyond 70 AD. Then on another hand you have some Futurists who are insisting that nothing in the Discourse is involving the first century, and certainly not 70 AD.
As if none of the following could possibly fit the first century leading up to 70 AD.
Luke 21:12 But before all these, they shall lay their hands on you, and persecute you, delivering you up to the synagogues, and into prisons, being brought before kings and rulers for my name's sake.
13 And it shall turn to you for a testimony.
14 Settle it therefore in your hearts, not to meditate before what ye shall answer:
15 For I will give you a mouth and wisdom, which all your adversaries shall not be able to gainsay nor resist.
16 And ye shall be betrayed both by parents, and brethren, and kinsfolks, and friends; and some of you shall they cause to be put to death.
Notice how that verse starts out---But before all these. Then notice this in verse 11--and fearful sights and great signs shall there be from heaven. Then compare that with this---and there shall be signs in the sun, and in the moon, and in the stars; and upon the earth distress of nations, with perplexity; the sea and the waves roaring; Men's hearts failing them for fear, and for looking after those things which are coming on the earth: for the powers of heaven shall be shaken(Luke 21:25-26)
And where does it place these events? Before or after verse 12 has been fulfilled? Before or after verse 20 has been fulfilled?
The fact a lot of Amils fall under the category of idealism, I'm guessing chronology and literal events are probably not relevant for the most part. Granted, there are numerous things in the Discourse that shouldn't be taken in the literal sense.
Everything, though? As if there is no such thing as literal nations warring with literal nations. As if there is no such thing as literal earthquakes happening anywhere on this planet. If none of those things can be involving the literal, maybe we shouldn't take the coming in Luke 21:27 in the literal sense, either. That Preterists are correct here. That it was a coming in judgment in 70 AD, a coming that didn't literally involve anyone bodily returning.
That's what happens when we end up with these extremist positions. We end up with the literal not involving the literal, but involving another sense instead. Prerists do it with the coming recorded in verse 27. They make a literal event to be meaning an event in a different sense altogether. And we have futurists, like you, doing pretty much the same thing with Luke 21:20, not to mention, verses 9-15. Where you have decided literal events are not literal events at all, but are meaning in another sense altogether.
Obviously then, since Pretrerists couldn't remotely be correct about verse 27, that it is not a literal event involving the bodily return of Christ in the end of this age, . and that some of the rest of us, including you, couldn't possibly be interpreting Matthew 24:15 incorrectly, that that verse is not meaning in a literal sense involving a literal temple in Jerusalem in the first century, this then tells us that some of the Discourse is meant to be taken in a literal sense, and some of it isn't. Even you can't argue with that unless you want to insist Luke 21:27 is not involving a literal event, meaning the bodily return of Christ in the end of this age. And since that can be involving a literal event, and that 70 AD obviously involved a literal event, why then can't Luke 21:20 simply be meaning what happened in 70 AD?