Wow retro thanks for pointing out all the places in the Bible where it refers to The Angel of The Lord as proof of your very thorough research, excellent work!!
I suppose you're right; they wouldn't say that these appearances are the pre-incarnate Christ. Actually you kind of get the feeling that nobody would have pieced that little gem of wizardry together until after Christ had been revealed in history post 1BC. but that's just crazy talk, right? I mean when had anything in the New Testament ever been revealed first in the Old?
Just look at this Judges account below; here we have this Angel of the LORD, revealing himself as a man speaking as God himself receiving worship and preforming Miracles. When did that ever happen in the New Testament ....*tisk*....Ol Jack is so silly. (I think its an age thing, dont tell him I said that)

h34r:
But....as long as you went through and found all those passages, you should have it covered ;)
Judges 6:11-24
11 The angel of the Lord came and sat down under the oak in Ophrah that belonged to Joash the Abiezrite, where his son Gideon was threshing wheat in a winepress to keep it from the Midianites. 12 When the angel of the Lord appeared to Gideon, he said, “The Lord is with you, mighty warrior.”
13 “Pardon me, my lord,” Gideon replied, “but if the Lord is with us, why has all this happened to us? Where are all his wonders that our ancestors told us about when they said, ‘Did not the Lord bring us up out of Egypt?’ But now the Lord has abandoned us and given us into the hand of Midian.”
Here it looks as though this angel has not been recognised as the Lord, but brings the message that the Lord is with Gideon which implies this angel is just a messenger of the Lord.
14 The Lord turned to him and said, “Go in the strength you have and save Israel out of Midian’s hand.
Am I not sending you?”
Now you could be forgiven for saying that the first part of the above sentence referrers to "Adonai," but then you run into the obstacle of the last statement “Am I not sending you?” after Gideon's complaint that the Lord as in “YHWH” had abandoned them.
Surly this "Adonai" isnt speaking as God?
15 “Pardon me, my lord,” Gideon replied, “but how can I save Israel? My clan is the weakest in Manasseh, and I am the least in my family.”
16 The Lord answered, “
I will be with you, and you will strike down all the Midianites, leaving none alive.”
Here again we run into the same problem this mere messenger once again takes the role of “YHWH” when he tells Gideon that he will be with him and he assures Gideon of his success.
This is a little reminiscent of many OT promises of God not the least of which (Deut 31:8)
“The LORD himself goes before you and will be with you; he will never leave you nor forsake you. Do not be afraid; do not be discouraged."
17 Gideon replied, “If now I have found favor
in your eyes, give me a sign
that it is really you talking to me. 18 Please do not go away until I come back and bring my offering and set it before you.”
And the Lord said, “I will wait until you return.”
This messenger or angel of the Lord has spoken as if he were the Lord God himself and Gideon has recognised this, but Gideon wants to make sure, but why?
If this were an angel before Gideon he would have likely fell to his face and been in fear as many are when angels appear (Luke 2:10). This tells us that the person who is speaking to Gideon has revealed himself in the form of a normal looking man, hence Gideon wants to know what he is saying is true, if He truly does speak as God. Gideon wants to bring an offering before this mere man who is an angel. this isnt something you did in the these times unless your offering came before God himself. This man assumes to speak as God so Gideon tests him, that if he is God then he will consume the offering! not only that but this mere angel in the form of a man assumes to accept this offering! Had the rules of Angel worship changed from the Genesis to Revelation? (Rev 22:9)
19 Gideon went inside, prepared a young goat, and from an ephah of flour he made bread without yeast. Putting the meat in a basket and its broth in a pot, he brought them out and offered them to him under the oak.
20 The angel of God said to him, “Take the meat and the unleavened bread, place them on this rock, and pour out the broth.” And Gideon did so.
21 Then the angel of the Lord touched the meat and the unleavened bread with the tip of the staff that was in his hand. Fire flared from the rock, consuming the meat and the bread. And the angel of
the Lord disappeared. 22 When Gideon realized that it was the angel of the Lord, he exclaimed, “
Alas, Sovereign Lord! I have seen the angel of the Lord face to face!” 23 But the Lord said to him, “Peace! Do not be afraid.
You are not going to die.”
What do ya know the offering is spectacularly consumed, is this just a coincidence??
So now we know this man was not just a man as Gideon had tested because no man can preform miracles simply disappear, but what is more interesting is Gideons response. Why would Gideon be suddenly afraid that he would die if the Lord he had seen was merely 'Adoni'?,
(Deut 5:26)( Ex 3:6) these scriptures both before his time testify that only those who see YHWH himself will die, so why was Gideon so afraid?
24 So Gideon built an altar to the Lord there and called it The Lord Is Peace. To this day it stands in Ophrah of the Abiezrites.
So in the above account we have The Angel of the Lord appearing as a normal man and speaking as God and preforming miracles.
If it were “An” angel of the Lord it normally appears and scares everyone as is always reference in the NT (Luke 2:9-11) as an example, and they bring messages from the Lord. But this particular Angel who appears as a normal man speaks as the Lord in the first person and is feared by Gideon as the Lord God himself.
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The only thing you are right about here is the translation of Psalm 110, unfortunately you have allowed this to inform (influence?) your theology concerning the deity of Christ as God the Son,
Psalm 110:1
1 The LORD says to my lord:
“Sit at my right hand
until I make your enemies
a footstool for your feet.”
Yes this is true as it is in the willful subordination from equality with God as God, God is One
Philippians 2:6 “Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be used to his own advantage;”
Isaiah 9:6 For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.
Matthew 1:23 “Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and they shall call his name Immanuel” (which means, God with us).
1 Timothy 2:5 For there is one God, and there is one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus
Galatians 3:19 Why, then, was the law given at all? It was added because of transgressions until the Seed to whom the promise referred had come. The law was given through angels and entrusted to a mediator.
A mediator, however, implies more than one party; but God is one.
(do a study in to this scripture man its a real eye popper!)
Colossians 1:19 For in him all the fullness of God was pleased to dwell
Colossians 2:9 For in him the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily,
When you made your leap from Chronicles to Matthew you skipped one important detail regarding what many would observe as the major distinction between Solomon the son of David and the Messiah Son of God and the obstacle which you encounter.
Luke 1:35 The angel answered, "The Holy Spirit will come on you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. So the holy one to be born will be called the Son of God.
In light of this I fail to see the deity in Solomon by way of an immaculate conception the "SAME WAY" as the Messiah was. In fact I would say that apart from Mary's womb (which is the blood line of David) and Gods promise to Abraham the difference is quite vast.
However if the distinction you are trying to make is Solomon as the foreshadowing of Messiah, then that parallel has been repeated since Noah, it in no way diminishes the divinity of Christ, that is unless you deny the virgin birth.
The above scriptures I had provided and so many more like it testify to Jesus the man being of the same "Substance" as the Father
John 14:10 "Do you not believe that I am in the Father and the Father is in me? The words that I say to you I do not speak on my own authority, but the Father who dwells in me does his works".
Now to your original point re translation of LORD and Lord I find no qualm as the subordination of the Son is always to the Father.
But as for your position about worship "Mights" do not cut the mustard and you are making an assumption based only on your own bias regarding Christ's divinity. wasnt it you who scorned another by saying;
As far as Christ's divinity goes as God in the flesh and in light of all I have shown you and no doubt more to come, nothing you have said in your OP has proven in any way what-so-ever apart from the regular baseless Arian style rhetoric that Jesus is not God of the same substance as God.
Peace !! :)
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