Spiritual Israelite
Well-Known Member
That's the problem. You interpret Revelation 21 and 22 with doctrinal bias instead of taking an objective approach to it and seeing what you discover. I don't understand that kind of thinking. Clearly, Revelation 21 and 22 describe a time when there is no more death, sorrow, crying or pain (Rev 21:4), so how can that describe the thousand years?I have no choice to if Premil is Biblical but Amil isn't.
It boggles my mind that you can recognize this but still be a Premil. I mean, I think my brain is literally melting right now just trying to figure out how someone can think that the NHNE is ushered in at the second coming and still be a Premil. Could Revelation 21:4 possibly be more clear that in the NHNE there will be no more death, sorrow, crying or pain and that the former things (like death, sorrow, crying and pain) are passed away there? Yet, you, as a Premil, have death, sorrow, crying and pain happening in the NHNE which blatantly contradicts what John indicated in Revelation 21. Huh? I just don't get it.It's not like the NHNE don't begin with the 2nd coming. There is no way around that though most Premils think there is. Meaning that the NHNE begin with the 2nd coming.
Once again, I have to remind you that the NT sheds light on the OT, not the other way around. That's something you don't, and may never, understand, but it's true. Let me make something clear! I'm not saying the OT is invalid and we should ignore it and only look at the NT. That's what you always think I'm saying, but it's not. I'm saying that the OT prophecies are explained in the NT. So, if the NT doesn't teach what you think you see being taught in the OT, that's a major problem that you need to reconcile. Because the NT authors understood the OT prophecies far better than you or I do and if they didn't teach anything that agrees with your understanding of the OT prophecies, then you need to rethink how you understand them.What is your view of the following in Isaiah 60, meaning what are you applying it to? I apply it it what Revelation 21-22 is applying it to. And in that same context is Isaiah 60:12.
Isaiah 60:11-21
It makes zero sense, that if verses 11, 13-21 are involving the same NHNE Revelation 21-22 are involving but verse 12 isn't. Why is it included in that context? Clearly, verse 12 is meaning before the GWTJ not after. Which has to mean the same has to be true for verses 11, 13-21 as well, otherwise one is cherry picking.
With all that said, I'm not really seeing your point here. Verse 12 is referring to what happens to unbelievers at that point. Instead of inheriting the NHNE, they will be cast into the lake of fire. So, the eternal fate of unbelievers is being contrasted with the eternal fate of believers. I'm not seeing what your issue is there.
By the way, I edited this to not include the text of Isaiah 60:11-21 that you quoted because I didn't want to have to break up this post into two posts and that's the only reason. With that text included, this post was over the limit of 10,000 characters.
You never look at the whole story. You didn't even address the point I made about that passage (Isaiah 2:2-4). It relates directly to the last days. According to scripture, the last days refer to the time period between Christ's first and second coming (Acts 2:16-21, 2 Peter 3:3-4). Why did you not address that? The last days had already begun before the day of Pentecost (Acts 2:16-21) and they last until Jesus comes again because that time period is marked by a time when scoffers scoff at the promise of His second coming. Obviously, once He comes no one will be scoffing after that, so His coming marks the end of the last days. He will come on the last day of the last days and will raise the dead who believe in Him on that day (John 6:40, 1 Thess 4:14-17, 1 Cor 15:22-23).As to Isaiah 2:4, it it Amils making Jesus a liar per their interpretation. And here is why.
Isaiah 2:4 And he shall judge among the nations, and shall rebuke many people: and they shall beat their swords into plowshares, and their spears into pruninghooks: nation shall not lift up sword against nation, neither shall they learn war any more.
Versus what Jesus said in Matthew 24:7.
Matthew 24:7 For nation shall rise against nation, and kingdom against kingdom: and there shall be famines, and pestilences, and earthquakes, in divers places.
In what universe do the following mean the exact same thing? nation shall not lift up sword against nation, neither shall they learn war any more---For nation shall rise against nation, and kingdom against kingdom
You are missing the context of each of those verses (Isaiah 2:4 and Matthew 24:7). The context of Isaiah 2:4 is in relation to God's people in particular, not all people. We are taught to be peacemakers, not troublemakers who start wars. Matthew 24:7 has a completely different context from that. That verse simply refers to things that would happen in the future from that time.
Surely, I understand that Isaiah 2:4 is not meant to be taken literally to be speaking about all people. Just like Joel 2:28-32 saying that God would pour out His Spirit on all people does not mean He would literally pour out His Spirit on all people, but that He would pour out His Spirit on all believers. Isaiah 2:4 only applies to believers. It may not be obvious from the text itself, just like what I said about Joel 2:28-32 is not obvious from the text itself. That's why you need spiritual discernment about these things and not just take text like that literally without considering the context.Obviously then, both can't be true at the same time. Which means the former can't be true until the latter is no longer true. Surely you understand what a contradiction is?
You always say that and you have no evidence to back it up. How about you stop saying that until you can back that up?The solution is simple. The last days have a last day obviously, but the last day is not a 24 hour period of time or less, it is an era of time involving more than 24 literal hours or less.
What are you talking about?At least it can explain passages such as Matthew 19:28, unlike Amil that can only make nonsense out of that passage since Amil doesn't have a period of time after Christ returns for this prophecy to fit during.
Matthew 19:28 And Jesus said unto them, Verily I say unto you, That ye which have followed me, in the regeneration when the Son of man shall sit in the throne of his glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel.
The judgment will occur in the realm of eternity, as Revelation 20:11 indicates because of the fact that it will not take place on earth or in heaven. The judgment does not occur during the last day, it occurs once the last day comes. The last day is a 24 hour day during which, at some point during that day, Jesus will come unexpectedly like a thief in the night and His people will be gathered to Him and He will physically destroy His enemies. Then eternity is ushered in and the judgment then takes place. To think that the judgment happens in the realm of time is ludicrous. It would take a ridiculous amount of time for Jesus to judge billions of people in the realm of time. That is not going to happen.
Judging the twelve tribes of Israel has nothing to do with ruling over them for a thousand years, it has to do with taking part in the judgment. The tribes of Israel will be judged by those who followed Jesus in the sense that the actions of the tribes of Israel will be judged and compared against the actions of true believers. You can see the contrast between the two in Matthew 25:31-46. Anyone who is shown to be a true believer based on their actions of following Jesus and helping the needy (the least of these) because they love Jesus and want to obey Him will inherit eternal life in the kingdom prepared from the foundation of the world. Those who did not follow Jesus and did not obey Him by loving others and helping the needy (the least of these) will instead be cast into "everlasting fire prepared for the devil and his angels". Your understanding of Matthew 19:28 is completely flawed.
I don't know why you disagree with Amil's interpretation of Acts 2:29-36. The passage is very straightforward and clearly indicates that the way in which Jesus ascended to the throne of David was by way of His resurrection. Peter said so explicitly.In some cases I feel Amils are doing the right thing by doing that. But not every time, though. But I don't agree with Amil's interpretation of Acts 2:29-36, nor I do I agree with any Premils if they are taking it to mean the same literal throne that David sat on. He will be sitting on a throne, though. Meaning once He returns to the earth. I just don't know what that might look like.
If you think that Jesus will be sitting on some literal throne when He comes, but it's not the one David sat on, then how does your interpretation match up with the prophecy that says one in David's line, which we know is Jesus, would sit on his (David's) throne?