According to my current reading of the Bible using First-Order Logic, yes homosexual acts are sinful. As usual, I could be wrong. FOL isn't the be-all and end-all. I am not a prophet of the Lord.
Leviticus 18:
Leviticus 20:
Romans 1:
1 Corinthians 6:
NIV Footnotes:
[a] The words men who have sex with men translate two Greek words that refer to the passive and active participants in homosexual acts.
1 Timothy 1:
Jude 1:
1 Corinthians 7:
Are homosexual acts sinful?
For each of the above passages, list the pros and cons factors. Be exhaustive and objective in listing the factors. Then for each factor, assign a weight between 0 and 10. I would put a higher weight on Bible verses and a lower weight on extra-biblical writings. Try not to let your preconceived notions influence your weighting. Do this for all the pros and cons for all the passages, Sum up the weights for the pros. Sum up the weights for the cons. Decide for yourself probabilistically.
I use Occam's razor as one of the hermeneutic tools when I interpret Bible verses. Each of the above passages can be explained away by some ad-hoc nuance as referring to a man having
sex with a temple prostitute, or a man having
sex with a boy, or men having sex with angelic beings, etc. However, there is a simple unifying explanation: it is talking about a man having sex with another man, consented or not. This simple explanation satisfies all 7 passages nicely. To me, this simple unifying factor is worthy of a heavy weight.
See also: