- Aug 10, 2016
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So...this might be asking too much. I have noticed that for some reason, nothing seems to send people off the deep end like discussing the end times. People just get mad. If I disagree with their eschatology, then I must be the devil!
So...here's where I am. I grew up in a Christian house where we didn't really talk about end times much, but when we did, I suppose it was with a Pre-trib flavour, because that's what my Grandparents where. Once I grew up myself and became serious about my faith, I decided it was a doctrine that shouldn't be ignored, so I looked into it, assuming that I would follow in my Grandparents footsteps...wonderful, godly people that they were! However, I just couldn't read Pretribulationalism into scripture. So, after a few years of wrestling, I landed Amil (yes, I can hear many of you screaming!). And truly, I have not had my decision shaken throughout the years, only strengthened. I cannot...simply cannot, see how anyone can read Dispensationalism into the texts (sorry, no disrespect meant!).
That being said, I fully acknowledge that I'm faaaarrr from a scholar and could be wrong. And that plenty of godly, wonderful Christian people hold to that position. In fact I've just met a lady who is probably one of the smartest I've ever met (she used to be a scientist before she became ill) and she holds to the Pre-trib position. So I'm wondering how? How can she hold to a position that I consider slightly illogical?
So...I was hoping that some people here might answer (calmly...I really don't want to get into a name calling session) some questions I have about Pretribulationalism.
Ok, first one: How can you say that you hold to a 'literal interpretation', when you just don't? If Hal Lindsey can turn giant bugs into helicopters, then that's not being literal. If the 1000 years has to be a literal 1000 years, then when, in the OT, when God says he owns "the cattle on a 1000 hills"...then I suppose we can only assume he only owns them...not all of them (as the text clearly wants us to take away)....you get my drift. It seems you pick and choose 'literal' to suit your purposes, but then criticise us when we do it based on the genre of the book in question. How does that work? Do you have a hermeneutic behind how you pick and choose that I'm not aware of?
2nd: How can you find a 'gap' in the last of Daniel's 70th week? Doesn't your 'literal' interpretation mean that we'd need to be specifically told it's there? Even without specific's I don't see any sort of implication of it. Without specific, or implication, it seems to me that going to the text without a preconcieved notion of a 'gap' and then a seven year Tribulation wouldn't see you come away with one. It isn't there. So I suppose my question here is...where is it that you...exactly...get the gap? If it's simply the fact that "it hasn't happened yet", then I'm not sure that's strong enough. Do you have biblical evidence for there being, very specifically, a gap?
3rd: And this one is just a clincher for me. You believe that once Christ returns (second return, part 2) and ushers in his millennial reign on the earth, that after the thousand years, Satan will be released and that he will lead the 'nations' of the earth in a revolt against Jesus. Are we honestly saying that after our Lord and Saviour has ruled and reigned over us for a thousand wonderful years of peace and harmony, that humankind is going to experience another fall? This is really no small thing we're talking about. Jesus will be King. No one will be opposing him. Sure, you say not all mankind will be 'saved' and we all know what human nature is capable of. But the whole bible is full of dealing with the 'fall out' of the first rebellion. Can we truly believe that one, tiny verse in Revelation is all that the bible has to say about a potential kick in the teeth of Jesus' reign? It's obscene, the very thought of it, isn't it? I suppose what I'm asking for here, again, is what your views have to say on this. Is this view only based on Revelations 20...on that small verse there within?
4th: Probably my final question at the moment. I suppose one of the most baffling things I find about the Pre-trib, is how you manage to separate the two 2nd comings of Jesus. I simply cannot find that in scripture. Yes...I can find proof of the Rapture, the doctrine is clear...when Jesus returns Christians will meet him in the air, where we will be given our new bodies. However, I find nothing that tells me that this will be secretly seven years before his other coming. In fact, everything I find that mentions his return seems to be rather final. The Day of the Lord (2 Pet 3:10), also known as Christ's second coming (1 Cor 15:23-24, 2Thess 1:7) seems to usher in the renewal of the cosmos (2 Pet 3:10), the resurrection of the unjust (John 5:29), final judgment of the unjust (Matt 25: 31-33, 2 Thess 1:6, 8-9) as well as the resurrection of the just (John 5:29), final judgement of the just (Matt 25: 31-33, 2 Thess 1:7) and, of course, the defeat of the last enemy, death (1 Cor 15:23-26).
The same passage that talk about cosmic renewal talk about him coming as a thief...isn't that the term you use to describe the Rapture? You have to, because if you follow, we'll be able to calculate when he'll come next, after the Tribulation starts. He won't be thief-like then, he'll be 7 years to the dot.
So how do you separate all these events? How can Jesus return and Judge the unjust, if it's the Rapture? How can he return and make the cosmos new, if it's the Rapture? How can he return and put an end to death, if it's the Rapture? Where in any of these passages does it allow for a secret return with a seven year gap? I can't see it, and I'm not sure how you do? I'm open to passages and pointers if you have them....
So...here's where I am. I grew up in a Christian house where we didn't really talk about end times much, but when we did, I suppose it was with a Pre-trib flavour, because that's what my Grandparents where. Once I grew up myself and became serious about my faith, I decided it was a doctrine that shouldn't be ignored, so I looked into it, assuming that I would follow in my Grandparents footsteps...wonderful, godly people that they were! However, I just couldn't read Pretribulationalism into scripture. So, after a few years of wrestling, I landed Amil (yes, I can hear many of you screaming!). And truly, I have not had my decision shaken throughout the years, only strengthened. I cannot...simply cannot, see how anyone can read Dispensationalism into the texts (sorry, no disrespect meant!).
That being said, I fully acknowledge that I'm faaaarrr from a scholar and could be wrong. And that plenty of godly, wonderful Christian people hold to that position. In fact I've just met a lady who is probably one of the smartest I've ever met (she used to be a scientist before she became ill) and she holds to the Pre-trib position. So I'm wondering how? How can she hold to a position that I consider slightly illogical?
So...I was hoping that some people here might answer (calmly...I really don't want to get into a name calling session) some questions I have about Pretribulationalism.
Ok, first one: How can you say that you hold to a 'literal interpretation', when you just don't? If Hal Lindsey can turn giant bugs into helicopters, then that's not being literal. If the 1000 years has to be a literal 1000 years, then when, in the OT, when God says he owns "the cattle on a 1000 hills"...then I suppose we can only assume he only owns them...not all of them (as the text clearly wants us to take away)....you get my drift. It seems you pick and choose 'literal' to suit your purposes, but then criticise us when we do it based on the genre of the book in question. How does that work? Do you have a hermeneutic behind how you pick and choose that I'm not aware of?
2nd: How can you find a 'gap' in the last of Daniel's 70th week? Doesn't your 'literal' interpretation mean that we'd need to be specifically told it's there? Even without specific's I don't see any sort of implication of it. Without specific, or implication, it seems to me that going to the text without a preconcieved notion of a 'gap' and then a seven year Tribulation wouldn't see you come away with one. It isn't there. So I suppose my question here is...where is it that you...exactly...get the gap? If it's simply the fact that "it hasn't happened yet", then I'm not sure that's strong enough. Do you have biblical evidence for there being, very specifically, a gap?
3rd: And this one is just a clincher for me. You believe that once Christ returns (second return, part 2) and ushers in his millennial reign on the earth, that after the thousand years, Satan will be released and that he will lead the 'nations' of the earth in a revolt against Jesus. Are we honestly saying that after our Lord and Saviour has ruled and reigned over us for a thousand wonderful years of peace and harmony, that humankind is going to experience another fall? This is really no small thing we're talking about. Jesus will be King. No one will be opposing him. Sure, you say not all mankind will be 'saved' and we all know what human nature is capable of. But the whole bible is full of dealing with the 'fall out' of the first rebellion. Can we truly believe that one, tiny verse in Revelation is all that the bible has to say about a potential kick in the teeth of Jesus' reign? It's obscene, the very thought of it, isn't it? I suppose what I'm asking for here, again, is what your views have to say on this. Is this view only based on Revelations 20...on that small verse there within?
4th: Probably my final question at the moment. I suppose one of the most baffling things I find about the Pre-trib, is how you manage to separate the two 2nd comings of Jesus. I simply cannot find that in scripture. Yes...I can find proof of the Rapture, the doctrine is clear...when Jesus returns Christians will meet him in the air, where we will be given our new bodies. However, I find nothing that tells me that this will be secretly seven years before his other coming. In fact, everything I find that mentions his return seems to be rather final. The Day of the Lord (2 Pet 3:10), also known as Christ's second coming (1 Cor 15:23-24, 2Thess 1:7) seems to usher in the renewal of the cosmos (2 Pet 3:10), the resurrection of the unjust (John 5:29), final judgment of the unjust (Matt 25: 31-33, 2 Thess 1:6, 8-9) as well as the resurrection of the just (John 5:29), final judgement of the just (Matt 25: 31-33, 2 Thess 1:7) and, of course, the defeat of the last enemy, death (1 Cor 15:23-26).
The same passage that talk about cosmic renewal talk about him coming as a thief...isn't that the term you use to describe the Rapture? You have to, because if you follow, we'll be able to calculate when he'll come next, after the Tribulation starts. He won't be thief-like then, he'll be 7 years to the dot.
So how do you separate all these events? How can Jesus return and Judge the unjust, if it's the Rapture? How can he return and make the cosmos new, if it's the Rapture? How can he return and put an end to death, if it's the Rapture? Where in any of these passages does it allow for a secret return with a seven year gap? I can't see it, and I'm not sure how you do? I'm open to passages and pointers if you have them....