Surely Premils must invent 2 future glorifications days and 2 future raptures separated by 1000 years+?

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TrevorHL

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Greetings again Spiritual Israelite,
Are you not aware that Jesus reigns now and that we are His priests now?
Yes, Jesus reigns now, but he has a greater role when he comes to reign during the 1000 years and the immortal faithful will also share this role as king/priests for the 1000 years Revelation 20:4-6. Why do you ignore this passage.
God wants all people to be saved and commands all people to repent, so, yes, everyone has heard the call in one way or another.
From my experience, not many have heard the message of the gospel in a strong convincing manner.
So, Abraham traveled and spent time in the Philistine land for "many days". Is that referring to just some of the days that Abraham was in the Philistines' land or all of the days that Abraham was in the Philistines' land?
I find your argument here very unconvincing and shallow.
In other words, you will hold to what contradicts what Jesus states which is that all of the dead will be resurrected at the same time (John 5:28-29).
I will stand by with what I have already stated concerning Daniel 12:1-3.
I thought I made it clear. The time from His first coming to His second coming are the last days.
A period of 2000 years appears to contradict the meaning of "last" in "last days". I will hold to the two different descriptions, AD 70 and the second coming.
That is figurative language, as you like to say about the new heavens and new earth.
The detail of Isaiah 2:1-4 is consistent with all the other literal detail in the OT prophets and Acts 3:19-21. Why do you want to ignore this detail?
Figurative or not, you believe in two new heavens and two new earths
Yes.
Isaiah 65:18-19 says there will be no more weeping or crying. So, no one will mourn anyone's death at that point?
You refer to the passages regarding the new heavens and new earth as "figurative language", but for some reason you don't take Isaiah 65:20 figuratively and take it literally instead.
I added some more detail at the end of my previous post to answer this before you posted and you may have missed this. The only additional thought is that at both funerals we did have the comfort that we would see both my mother-in-law and my father at the resurrection, and we were confident that they were faithful and would be accepted by Christ at his coming 2 Timothy 4:1,6-8. My Dad lived a very full spiritual life and as his health started to fade he published his book of mainly spiritual poetry and hymns, and these strongly reflect his character, his persuasions and hopes.

I have not answered your additional posts, but much of this has been answered previously and I now have time constraints until later this afternoon.

Kind regards
Trevor
 
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WPM

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Greetings again WPM,

I am satisfied with my original answers. What I stated is a summary of the substance of the rest of my posts.

Isaiah 65 teaches that in the new heaven and earth of the 1000 years there will be mortals and they will live to 100 years. The following also teaches that there will be mortal sinners during the 1000 years:

Zechariah 14:16-19 (KJV): 16And it shall come to pass, that every one that is left of all the nations which came against Jerusalem shall even go up from year to year to worship the King, the LORD of hosts, and to keep the feast of tabernacles. 17And it shall be, that whoso will not come up of all the families of the earth unto Jerusalem to worship the King, the LORD of hosts, even upon them shall be no rain. 18And if the family of Egypt go not up, and come not, that have no rain; there shall be the plague, wherewith the LORD will smite the heathen that come not up to keep the feast of tabernacles. 19This shall be the punishment of Egypt, and the punishment of all nations that come not up to keep the feast of tabernacles.

These are two different heavens and earths, one the 1000 years and the second after the 1000 years. About ten years ago we buried my mother-in-law at the age of 100 years. She had been a widow for 38 years and she had lived a full life. She lived independently in her own flat until the age of 97 years and only started to lose some memory at 99. Her health also started to fade at 99. When we buried her there was no major grief, but the reflection on her life. She was buried next to her husband and both now have the inscription on their stones "In hope of the resurrection". When we buried my father at the age of 75 after a heart attack there was much sorrow, but this will not happen during the 1000 years.

Kind regards
Trevor
When does your Mark 1 last days begin? When do they end? Do they end? When does your Mark 2 last days begin? When do they end? Do they end?

When does your Mark 1 new heavens and new earth begin? When do they end? Do they end? When does your Mark 2 new heavens and new earth begin? When do they end? Do they end?
 

WPM

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I fully agree with what you described here, but it is a concept that Premills do not understand at all. And that is a big reason why they are Premills. You can't be a Premill while using clearer and simpler passages to interpret more difficult passages since the clearer and simpler passages overwhelmingly support Amill.


Agree. It's not referring to a first new heavens and first new earth as some imagine. It is referring to THE new heavens and a new earth. There is only one new heavens and new earth. If someone tries to say there are two new heavens and new earths, what is to keep someone from saying there are three or four new heavens and new earths or however many new heavens and new earths they need there to be to support their doctrine? If Isaiah 65:17-25 and Revelation 21:1-4 referred to two different new heavens and new earths then what is to keep us from claiming that 2 Peter 3:13 is referring to a third new heavens and third new earth? Where does the madness end?


Right. They did not have any understanding of eternity yet at that time because it was not God's plan to reveal it until New Testament times, so Isaiah described it in a way that they could understand at the time.


Agree. And, as I like to ask the Premills who think that Isaiah 65:17-25 applies to a future earthly millennium, why do they believe that no one will mourn anyone's death during that time? Will people not care if their loved ones die during that time? Premills don't realize how their interpretations of Isaiah 65:20 make nonsense out of the verse preceding it because they have death occurring but no one weeping or crying over their loved ones' deaths. Which is obviously ridiculous.

Death is eliminated when Jesus comes. So will sin and sinners. Let us have a literal word-by-word look at the Hebrew pertaining to Isaiah 65:20.

לֹא־יִֽהְיֶ֨ה מִשָּׁ֜ם עֹ֗וד ע֤וּל יָמִים֙ וְזָקֵ֔ן אֲשֶׁ֥ר
Lo'- yihªyeh mishaam `owd `uwl yaamiym wªzaaqeen 'ªsher
Not be hence more an infant [of] days, an old man after


לֹֽא־יְמַלֵּ֖א אֶת־יָמָ֑יו כִּ֣י הַנַּ֗עַר בֶּן־מֵאָ֤ה שָׁנָה֙ יָמ֔וּת
Lo'- yªmalee''et- yaamaayw Kiy hana`ar ben- mee'aah shaanaah yaamuwt
Not fulfill your days inasmuch a child old an hundred years die


What is this telling us?

The exact same thing, only in different terms.

This is called synonymous parallelism. It is telling us that a child will never become old on the new earth. This line reinforces what has just been said. It confirms the thought of the impending reality of no more death in the eternal state for the righteous. In eternity there will be no more aging or dying. It is not going to be like our corrupt age where infants eventually get old. It will not be like the here-and-now where a man could live to be an old person of a hundred years of age and then die.

This passage is actually saying the opposite to what many think. What this is saying is: there will be no more aging, curse or death on the new earth. Every glorified saints will have come to full maturity in Christ with their new perfect eternal bodies. It is the next line of Isaiah 65:20 that has confused many, because the translators have not interpreted it in a literal word-for-word sense. It is not saying there will be more babies, death and old men. It is saying the opposite to what they are alleging. It is saying that there will be no more aging: children getting old, old people and people dying! It is describing eternity to an Old Testament audience in terms they can grasp.

The new heavens and new earth will indeed be a glorious victorious perfect state where death is unknown. God is saying that the eternal state will actually be free of death for young and old alike. This passage is telling us that there will be no more death on the new earth! The Hebrew word Lo' (Strong’s 3808) means “no” or “not.” The word is a simple negation. The word is found twice in this much-debated new heavens and new earth verse.

Debate in Isaiah 65:20 centers in on the use of the original word yaamuw meaning “die” or “death.” What should we relate it to? Is there indeed “death” on the new earth? Also, should the death be related to the “child” in the second phrase or the “sinner” in the third phrase? What is more, in what way should it read? I must admit, if we are to read it in its most natural way it fits perfectly with the context. So why change it? I believe it should be applied to the “child” as it should agree with the first phrase that is simply a reinforcement of the same truth. It then fits perfectly with the whole overall teaching of the prophet on the perfection and bliss of the eternal state.

No (Lo') longer will an infant become like an old man,
No
(Lo') longer will a child reach one hundred and die.

This is Old Testament verbiage that describes eternity to the Old Testament listener. It is telling us: no one is going to age! This relates to the new heaven and new earth not some supposed future millennium – that will never happen.

The original Hebrew does not give us any reason to attribute death to the “child” in this second line. In fact, it does not fit the whole context which is evidently speaking of the removal of aging and death on the new earth. Interpreting it as we have, seems to (1) match the original, (2) make sense to its context, and (3) taps into the thrust of what the prophet was trying to relay. We need to remind ourselves that the whole idea here is describing the incredible eternal deliverance from the curse of corruption and the joy that “the former shall not be remembered, nor come into mind” on the “new earth.”
 
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TrevorHL

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Greetings again WPM,
When does your Mark 1 last days begin? When do they end? Do they end? When does your Mark 2 last days begin? When do they end? Do they end?
The first includes the ministry of Jesus and ends in AD 70. The second includes the events leading up to the full establishment of the 1000 year kingdom.
When does your Mark 1 new heavens and new earth begin? When do they end? Do they end? When does your Mark 2 new heavens and new earth begin? When do they end? Do they end?
The first at the beginning of the 1000 years until the end of the 1000 years where there will be mortals and the second at the beginning of the period after the 1000 years when there will be no death.

Kind regards
Trevor
 

WPM

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The first includes the ministry of Jesus and ends in AD 70. The second includes the events leading up to the full establishment of the 1000 year kingdom.

When is the last or final day of the last days?

The first at the beginning of the 1000 years until the end of the 1000 years where there will be mortals and the second at the beginning of the period after the 1000 years when there will be no death.

Which NHNE is Satan's little season in?
  1. In your Mark 1 new heavens and new earth, is there sin and sinners?
  2. In your Mark 1 new heavens and new earth, is there dying and crying?
  3. In your Mark 1 new heavens and new earth, is there disease and decay?
  4. In your Mark 1 new heavens and new earth, is there corruption and crime?
  5. In your Mark 1 new heavens and new earth, is there riots and rebellion?
  6. In your Mark 1 new heavens and new earth, is there war and terror?
  7. In your Mark 1 new heavens and new earth, is there Satan and his minions?
 

Spiritual Israelite

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Greetings again Spiritual Israelite,

Yes, Jesus reigns now, but he has a greater role when he comes to reign during the 1000 years and the immortal faithful will also share this role as king/priests for the 1000 years Revelation 20:4-6. Why do you ignore this passage.
I ignore nothing. Premills say "Yes, but..." all the time. Yes, but nothing. I allow scripture to tell me when Jesus reigns and when we are His priests and scripture says that time began at His resurrection. Scripture says He reigns now and we are His priests now (1 Peter 2:9, Rev 1:5-6). Why do you ignore that? Why would you not take that information and interpret Revelation 20:4-6 accordingly?

Why would you not take the fact that other scripture teaches that Jesus's resurrection was the first resurrection and interpret Revelation
20:4-6 accordingly? Why do you ignore that?

The first resurrection:

Acts 26:23 That Christ should suffer, and that he should be the first that should rise from the dead, and should shew light unto the people, and to the Gentiles.

Having part in the first resurrection:

Colossians 2:12 Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead. 13 And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;

I find your argument here very unconvincing and shallow.
Why is that? Are you afraid to even address what I said? Just saying this is weak. Tell me why you think it's unconvincing? I showed the word "many" being used to refer to all of something and you can't even bring yourself to address that? Talk about unconvincing and shallow.

I will stand by with what I have already stated concerning Daniel 12:1-3.
That is a mistake because you are clearly wrong. The word "many" does not mean "some, but not all". The word can be used to refer to some, but not all of something or it can be used to refer to all of something like in the passage I referenced. Why can you not acknowledge that fact?

A period of 2000 years appears to contradict the meaning of "last" in "last days". I will hold to the two different descriptions, AD 70 and the second coming.
Why do you not even bother addressing the passages I use to support my claims? You would rather just cherry pick scripture and ignore the rest? The phrase "the last time" is also used to refer to the same time period and it just is a phrase that contrasts the New Testament era after Christ's first coming from the Old Testament era before Christ came.

The detail of Isaiah 2:1-4 is consistent with all the other literal detail in the OT prophets and Acts 3:19-21. Why do you want to ignore this detail?
Why do you want to turn the last days into a time period after His second coming when other scripture does not? Why do you want to twist scripture to make it say what you want it to say? Why can you recognize figurative text in Isaiah 65, but completely miss it in Isaiah 2? Where is the consistency in your approach to interpreting scripture? You think we're going to take it seriously when you believe in two different "last days" and two new heavens and two new earths? If you think Isaiah 65:17-25 is one new heavens and new earth and Revelation 21 is another, then why not just see 2 Peter 3:13 as a third new heavens and new earth? Where does it end?
 
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claninja

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Premil teaches that there will be many fallen human beings in mortal bodies living on a millennial earth after the second coming who are distinguished from the immortals. They also argue many of these will be converted in their so-called future millennium. Surely Premils are going to have to create another catching away (“rapture”) for the "mortal believers" that get saved during their millennium in order to allow them to enter the glorified state and eternal bliss? After all, where does all the mortal saints in the millennium go when the earth flees away (Revelation 20:11) or passes away (Revelation 21:1-5)? Surely, they are not going to pass away when the earth passes away?

So, when do all the millennial mortal converts get glorified? Please give Scripture. Surely there needs to be another glorification of the "the mortal saints" after Satan's little season to make them fit and prepared for the eternal state? After all, “flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption” (1 Corinthians 15:50).

Surely there needs to be another “day of redemption” after the “day of redemption” at the second coming (Luke 21:28, Romans 8:19-23 and Ephesians 1:13-14) in order to redeem the bodies of the millennial mortals that put their trust in Christ?

They didn’t invent it. Revelation, a highly figurative and apocalyptic book on which there is no universal agreement on how to interpret, and whose inclusion into cannon was highly debated and not widely accepted, “revealed” it.
 

Spiritual Israelite

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Death is eliminated when Jesus comes. So will sin and sinners. Let us have a literal word-by-word look at the Hebrew pertaining to Isaiah 65:20.

לֹא־יִֽהְיֶ֨ה מִשָּׁ֜ם עֹ֗וד ע֤וּל יָמִים֙ וְזָקֵ֔ן אֲשֶׁ֥ר
Lo'- yihªyeh mishaam `owd `uwl yaamiym wªzaaqeen 'ªsher
Not be hence more an infant [of] days, an old man after


לֹֽא־יְמַלֵּ֖א אֶת־יָמָ֑יו כִּ֣י הַנַּ֗עַר בֶּן־מֵאָ֤ה שָׁנָה֙ יָמ֔וּת
Lo'- yªmalee''et- yaamaayw Kiy hana`ar ben- mee'aah shaanaah yaamuwt
Not fulfill your days inasmuch a child old an hundred years die


What is this telling us?

The exact same thing, only in different terms.

This is called synonymous parallelism. It is telling us that a child will never become old on the new earth. This line reinforces what has just been said. It confirms the thought of the impending reality of no more death in the eternal state for the righteous. In eternity there will be no more aging or dying. It is not going to be like our corrupt age where infants eventually get old. It will not be like the here-and-now where a man could live to be an old person of a hundred years of age and then die.

This passage is actually saying the opposite to what many think. What this is saying is: there will be no more aging, curse or death on the new earth. Every glorified saints will have come to full maturity in Christ with their new perfect eternal bodies. It is the next line of Isaiah 65:20 that has confused many, because the translators have not interpreted it in a literal word-for-word sense. It is not saying there will be more babies, death and old men. It is saying the opposite to what they are alleging. It is saying that there will be no more aging: children getting old, old people and people dying! It is describing eternity to an Old Testament audience in terms they can grasp.

The new heavens and new earth will indeed be a glorious victorious perfect state where death is unknown. God is saying that the eternal state will actually be free of death for young and old alike. This passage is telling us that there will be no more death on the new earth! The Hebrew word Lo' (Strong’s 3808) means “no” or “not.” The word is a simple negation. The word is found twice in this much-debated new heavens and new earth verse.

Debate in Isaiah 65:20 centers in on the use of the original word yaamuw meaning “die” or “death.” What should we relate it to? Is there indeed “death” on the new earth? Also, should the death be related to the “child” in the second phrase or the “sinner” in the third phrase? What is more, in what way should it read? I must admit, if we are to read it in its most natural way it fits perfectly with the context. So why change it? I believe it should be applied to the “child” as it should agree with the first phrase that is simply a reinforcement of the same truth. It then fits perfectly with the whole overall teaching of the prophet on the perfection and bliss of the eternal state.

No (Lo') longer will an infant become like an old man,
No
(Lo') longer will a child reach one hundred and die.

This is Old Testament verbiage that describes eternity to the Old Testament listener. It is telling us: no one is going to age! This relates to the new heaven and new earth not some supposed future millennium – that will never happen.

The original Hebrew does not give us any reason to attribute death to the “child” in this second line. In fact, it does not fit the whole context which is evidently speaking of the removal of aging and death on the new earth. Interpreting it as we have, seems to (1) match the original, (2) make sense to its context, and (3) taps into the thrust of what the prophet was trying to relay. We need to remind ourselves that the whole idea here is describing the incredible eternal deliverance from the curse of corruption and the joy that “the former shall not be remembered, nor come into mind” on the “new earth.”
This makes a lot of sense, so I might need to reconsider how I present my view of that passage. I normally say that it's figuratively referring to a 100 year old as being a child, reflecting that even after 100 years in eternity (if there was time in eternity) then a person would still be considered a child because no one will age in eternity.

Beyond all this, it's important to understand that scripture would not teach about two different new heavens and new earths unless it made it clear that there were two new heavens and new earths and it never does that. That's why we don't see a reference to the second new heavens and new earth in Revelation 21 or 2 Peter 3:13. There's only one new heavens and new earth. So, instead of thinking there are two new heavens and new earths or thinking that the new heavens and new earth will first be ushered in at Christ's second coming for a thousand years before eternity is ushered in, we need to reconcile Isaiah 65:17-25 and Revelation 21:1-4 together. And Revelation 21:4 is clearly literal and straightforward while Isaiah 65:20 is clearly not. So, we should not make the verse that isn't as clear contradict the verse that is clear.

And, we should not interpret Isaiah 65:20 in such a way that it makes it so that there would be a future time period during which no one will mourn their loved one's death or cry for any reason at all during that time, which is obviously ridiculous.
 
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Spiritual Israelite

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They didn’t invent it. Revelation, a highly figurative and apocalyptic book on which there is no universal agreement on how to interpret, and whose inclusion into cannon was highly debated and not widely accepted, “revealed” it.
What are you intending to say here exactly? I'm trying to figure out how your comment here relates to what WPM said. What he was asking about that Premills should answer is when does the bodily redemption of those who die during the supposed future thousand years occur and where does scripture describe it?
 
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claninja

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What are you intending to say here exactly? I'm trying to figure out how your comment here relates to what WPM said. What he was asking about that Premills should answer is when does the bodily redemption of those who die during the supposed future thousand years occur and where does scripture describe it?

My response is in regards to the title of OP, which states premils “must invent…...”

A literal reading of revelation 20 presents two resurrections separated by 1000 years, so I disagree with the phrase “invent”, as it’s literally there.

But revelation is also first century apocalyptic literature which is highly figurative and metaphorical, of which there is no universal agreement on how to interpret AND its inclusion into cannon was widely disputed. This is ironic, since it’s supposed to be “revealing”.

If you interpret revelation literally, it “reveals” the future events of 2 resurrections separated by 1,000 years.

If you interpret it metaphorically, it “reveals” a variety of interpretations
 
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claninja

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No (Lo') longer will an infant become like an old man,
No
(Lo') longer will a child reach one hundred and die.

A literal word for word of the Hebrew translated into English:

20There is not thence any more a suckling of days, And an aged man who doth not complete his days, For the youth a hundred years old dieth, And the sinner, a hundred years old, is lightly esteemed.

It does not say “no longer will an infant become like an old man” nor does it say “no longer will a child reach 100 and die”.

Its meaning is:
“no longer will an infant live only a few days nor an old man not live out his days”. “For someone a hundred years old will be considered young, and sinner who dies at 100 years old shall be considered accursed.
 

WPM

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A literal word for word of the Hebrew translated into English:

20There is not thence any more a suckling of days, And an aged man who doth not complete his days, For the youth a hundred years old dieth, And the sinner, a hundred years old, is lightly esteemed.

It does not say “no longer will an infant become like an old man” nor does it say “no longer will a child reach 100 and die”.

Its meaning is:
“no longer will an infant live only a few days nor an old man not live out his days”. “For someone a hundred years old will be considered young, and sinner who dies at 100 years old shall be considered accursed.
Read the Hebrew, not your heretical teachers that deny the literal physical future second coming of Christ.
 

Davidpt

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Posttrib Premils are often sheepish about acknowledging that their theology requires 2 future raptures/resurrections. Pretrib Premils do not like to accept that their theology requires 3 future raptures/resurrections.

What you are doing here is exactly what I do in regards to Amil. Except you all are saying I'm telling Amils what to believe and that I am misrepresenting Amil. And all I'm doing is, just like you here, showing what your theology requires in order to be true. When I do what you are doing here, it's called misrepresenting Amil. When you do what you are doing here, it is not called misrepresenting Premil. IOW, it's ok when you do things like this for the reasons you do. And when I do the same for the same reasons you do, it's called misrepresenting Amil, it's called me telling Amils what to believe, so on and so on.

What a bunch of hypocrites you Amils are. But not just you, @Spiritual Israelite as well since he joins in with you to insist I'm not doing what you are doing here, that I instead am misrepresenting Amil when I do these same things you are doing here. And to this day none of you have ever apologized for falsely accusing me of doing things I'm not even doing, nor will you ever since it requires you to humble yourselves in order to dothat. And once again I'm simply doing what you are doing here. Except when I do it, it's not ok to do that. But when you do it is ok to do that. Once again, what a bunch of hypocrites you Amils are. And no, I'm not angry nor do I hate any of you. I'm simply telling you straight up, the facts.
 
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Spiritual Israelite

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My response is in regards to the title of OP, which states premils “must invent…...”
Okay. I was only looking at what he actually said in the post you responded to.

A literal reading of revelation 20 presents two resurrections separated by 1000 years, so I disagree with the phrase “invent”, as it’s literally there.
You need to read what it says more carefully. It says "Premils must invent 2 future glorifications days and 2 future raptures separated by 1000 years+?. It does NOT say Premils must invent two resurrections separated by 1000 years".

Premills believe that those who belong to Christ are glorified (changed, made bodily immortal) on the day He comes which they obviously believe is before the thousand years. So, where does it say anything about believers being glorified 1,000+ years later as well? Nowhere. So, they have to invent that idea.

Likewise, Premills believe the rapture occurs before the thousand years. Where does Revelation 20 indicate that another rapture occurs 1,000+ years later when the fire is coming down from heaven? Nowhere. So, they have to invent that, too.

But revelation is also first century apocalyptic literature which is highly figurative and metaphorical, of which there is no universal agreement on how to interpret AND its inclusion into cannon was widely disputed. This is ironic, since it’s supposed to be “revealing”.
What is your point here? That you think we should ignore the book of Revelation? I doubt you mean to say that. I certainly would agree if you are meaning to say that we should not primarily base our doctrine on the book. We should use more clear scripture to help us understand it. But, that is not the approach that Premills take to interpreting the book. They use it as the primary foundation for their doctrine and then interpret everything else according to their interpretation of the book.

If you interpret revelation literally, it “reveals” the future events of 2 resurrections separated by 1,000 years.

If you interpret it metaphorically, it “reveals” a variety of interpretations
Sure. But, you clearly missed the point of this thread which is that Premills are not able to support their implied belief in two glorification days (two different days when the bodies of believers are changed and made immortal) and two raptures separated by 1,000+ years with scripture.
 

Spiritual Israelite

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What you are doing here is exactly what I do in regards to Amil. Except you all are saying I'm telling Amils what to believe and that I am misrepresenting Amil. And all I'm doing is, just like you here, showing what your theology requires in order to be true. When I do what you are doing here, it's called misrepresenting Amil.
But, in your case, you misrepresent what our view requires because of a lack of understading what we believe. So, how exactly did WPM misrepresent Premil in what he said?

When you do what you are doing here, it is not called misrpresenting Premil. IOW, it's ok when you do things like this for the reasons you do. And when I do the same for the same reasons you do, it's called misreprenting Amil, it's called me telling telling Amils what to believe, so on and so on.
You're not doing the same. Can you show that what he said is not true of what Premils believe? Then do so and stop whining. When we say that you misrepresent Amil, it's true. You do that often. You don't know what we believe better than we do. But, if we are misrepresenting Premill, then prove it.

What a bunch of hypocrites you Amils are.
LOL. When we say you misrepresent Amil, we back that up and show how you are misrepresenting it. So, where is your evidence to back up that WPM is misrepresenting Premill?

But not just you, @Spiritual Israelite as well since he joins in with you to insist I'm not doing what you are doing here, that I instead am misrepresenting Amil when I do these same things you are doing here.
I have no idea of what you're talking about here. You undeniably misrepresent Amill sometimes. That's not up for debate. Maybe not purposely, but you do. So, where is your evidence to show that we are misrepresenting Premill?

And to this day none of you ever apoligized for falsely accusing me of doing things I'm not even doing.
I will never apologize for pointing out when you misrepresent Amil. You do not understand what we believe better than we do, so we know when you are misrepresenting what we believe.

And once again I'm simply doing what you are doing here.
How so? In your case you misrepresent Amil. So, how is he misrepresenting Premill here?

Except when I do it, it's not ok to do that.
It's not okay to do it repeatedly. It can happen by mistake sometimes because sometimes things just aren't made clear. But, you misrepresent Amil over and over again.

But when you do it is ok to do that. Once again, what a bunch of hyprocites you Amils are. And no, I'm not angry nor do I hate any of you. I'm simply telling you straight up, the facts.
You always confuse the word "facts" with your opinions.
 

WPM

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What you are doing here is exactly what I do in regards to Amil. Except you all are saying I'm telling Amils what to believe and that I am misrepresenting Amil. And all I'm doing is, just like you here, showing what your theology requires in order to be true. When I do what you are doing here, it's called misrepresenting Amil. When you do what you are doing here, it is not called misrepresenting Premil. IOW, it's ok when you do things like this for the reasons you do. And when I do the same for the same reasons you do, it's called misrepresenting Amil, it's called me telling Amils what to believe, so on and so on.

What a bunch of hypocrites you Amils are. But not just you, @Spiritual Israelite as well since he joins in with you to insist I'm not doing what you are doing here, that I instead am misrepresenting Amil when I do these same things you are doing here. And to this day none of you have ever apologized for falsely accusing me of doing things I'm not even doing, nor will you ever since it requires you to humble yourselves in order to dothat. And once again I'm simply doing what you are doing here. Except when I do it, it's not ok to do that. But when you do it is ok to do that. Once again, what a bunch of hypocrites you Amils are. And no, I'm not angry nor do I hate any of you. I'm simply telling you straight up, the facts.

LOL. This is all noise. It sounds like a frustrated rant. You haven't even told us what we're supposedly misrepresenting your belief with. Typical! You obviously have no rebuttal.

What have I stated that is wrong in my post to you?
 
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WPM

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But, in your case, you misrepresent what our view requires because of a lack of understading what we believe. So, how exactly did WPM misrepresent Premil in what he said?


You're not doing the same. Can you show that what he said is not true of what Premils believe? Then do so and stop whining. When we say that you misrepresent Amil, it's true. You do that often. You don't know what we believe better than we do. But, if we are misrepresenting Premill, then prove it.


LOL. When we say you misrepresent Amil, we back that up and show how you are misrepresenting it. So, where is your evidence to back up that WPM is misrepresenting Premill?


I have no idea of what you're talking about here. You undeniably misrepresent Amill sometimes. That's not up for debate. Maybe not purposely, but you do. So, where is your evidence to show that we are misrepresenting Premill?


I will never apologize for pointing out when you misrepresent Amil. You do not understand what we believe better than we do, so we know when you are misrepresenting what we believe.


How so? In your case you misrepresent Amil. So, how is he misrepresenting Premill here?


It's not okay to do it repeatedly. It can happen by mistake sometimes because sometimes things just aren't made clear. But, you misrepresent Amil over and over again.


You always confuse the word "facts" with your opinions.

Exactly bro! It is just a frustrated rant because he has nothing to refute our view with.
 
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Spiritual Israelite

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A literal word for word of the Hebrew translated into English:

20There is not thence any more a suckling of days, And an aged man who doth not complete his days, For the youth a hundred years old dieth, And the sinner, a hundred years old, is lightly esteemed.

It does not say “no longer will an infant become like an old man” nor does it say “no longer will a child reach 100 and die”.

Its meaning is:
“no longer will an infant live only a few days nor an old man not live out his days”. “For someone a hundred years old will be considered young, and sinner who dies at 100 years old shall be considered accursed.
I very much dislike how you act like you are the ultimate Hebrew and Greek expert. I know you are not. Why are you so full of yourself? At least he actually went through each word in the original text and explained how he came to his conclusions. Why are you not doing that?

In my view neither rendering supports Premill, anyway. Even in the early years of history when people lived for hundreds of years, someone 100 years old was not considered to be young. So, I believe with either rendering of the text it should be clear that the text is figuratively describing eternity when no one will age. I don't believe there will be time in eternity, but if there was, then even if 100 years go by a person is the same and doesn't appear any older because no one will age during eternity. Isaiah was describing eternity at a time when no one had any concept of it like we do now and have since the New Testament was written. So, he had to describe it figuratively in a way people back then could understand.
 
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Spiritual Israelite

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LOL. This is all noise. It sounds like a frustrated rant. You haven't even told us what we're supposedly misrepresenting your belief with. Typical! You obviously have no rebuttal.

What have I stated that is wrong in my post to you?
He cries about us accusing him of misrepresenting our Amill view, which he does often, and says you are doing the same and being hypocritical as a result. And then he proceeds to offer no evidence to show that you misrepresented Premill in any way and didn't even indicate what it is that you supposedly were misrepresenting!

Imagine accusing someone of something while offering no evidence to back it up. That is exactly what he did here. It makes no sense.
 

WPM

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He cries about us accusing him of misrepresenting our Amill view, which he does often, and says you are doing the same and being hypocritical as a result. And then he proceeds to offer no evidence to show that you misrepresented Premill in any way and didn't even indicate what it is that you supposedly were misrepresenting!

Imagine accusing someone of something while offering no evidence to back it up. That is exactly what he did here. It makes no sense.

When your doctrine has been repeatedly and solidly exposed from every angle, and shown to be contradictory to Scripture, what more can you do but attack the messengers?
 
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