LOL. Are you sure you're an Amill?
More true Amill than you ever been, Mr-I-Believe-the-Olivet-Discourse-was-about-the-first-century.
What a lie. I have quoted plenty of verses in this discussion.
Not really. You have been emphasized on 2nd Peter 3 again and again with a wrong understanding.
I already have. Are you actually reading my posts or not?
What do you think?
I have referenced 2nd Peter 3 where Peter indicates that the Lord will be patient with people, giving them to repent up until the time when it will be too late when He comes as a thief in the night and burns up the earth (2 Peter 3:8-13).
We disagreed on this. Shall we move on?
Are you even trying to see the point? How can love be forced rather than being a matter of the will? It can't be. Love is an act of the will and isn't something that someone just does because God made them do it or basically programmed them to do it (which is why I referenced robots).
No, you don't get it. This doesn't make any sense to me. If He foreknew that men would come to him of their own free will, then there is no need to Predestinate or "Determine-before" that men would come to Him. Since (according to you) He already foresaw it. Why predetermine something you already saw as determined? It makes no sense.
We all agree that God "foreknew." Therefore, if we all believe in the "authority" of the scriptures, then we know that what He foreknew was that man's righteousness was as filthy rags, and that there were
None that were good, and there were
None that would seek after God. No, not even one!
Romans 3:11-12
- "There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God.
- They are all gone out of the way, they are together become unprofitable; there is none that doeth good, no, not one."
Yes, God foresaw. And this is "what" God foresaw when He looked down through the halls of time. He saw that man's righteousness was as a filthy rag, and that there was not one who was good, and that there was not one who would seek after Him. And so being Omniscient, He "foresaw" that He had to "choose" by His own sovereign good will, whosoever He wanted.
Romans 8:29
- "For whom he did foreknow, he also did Predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren."
For God understood perfectly what a lot of professing Christians today don't seem to understand. The
total inability of man to,
by his own free will, seek after God. He had to be Predestinated "to be" conformed to Christ's image.
John 6:44
- "No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day."
When God foreknew, He knew that by nature, through the fall, all men were enemies of God, and adversarial to His laws and Holiness.
Unregenerate man is in a state of impotency as far as believing unto Life, and without God drawing him, working in him to will and do,
not one would seek.
Sounds like robots to you? I think not!
Nope.
Yes, but not without us having any choice in the matter. I assume you think God also predestined unbelievers that they would not be conformed to the likeness of Jesus and instead would be predestined to be condemned to the lake of fire. Why would God do that to those people? Scripture says "God is love" (1 John 4:8,16). How can a God of love predestine people to an eternity of torment by His choice with them having no choice in the matter? That makes no sense. Instead, it makes sense that a God of love would offer salvation to all people while giving all people the choice to accept it or not.
Read the verses above.
Titus 2:11 For the grace of God has appeared that offers salvation to all people.
Salvation to ALL people? Really? Try to use KJV, dude.
Tit 2:11 "For the grace of
God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men"
And cross reference this with these verses:
John 3:17 "For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved. He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God. And this is the condemnation, that light is come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than light, because their deeds were evil. For every one that doeth evil hateth the light, neither cometh to the light, lest his deeds should be reproved. "
Mat 1:20-21 "But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.
And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for
he shall save his people from their sins."
Sounds like all people? Nope.
Do you even try to reconcile that or do you have a version of the Bible that doesn't include verses like Titus 2:11 or verses like 1 Timothy 2:3-6 that says God wants all people to be saved or verses like 1 John 2:1-2 which says that Jesus died for not only our sins, but the sins of the whole world?
1Jn 2:1-2
(1) My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous:
(2) And he is the
propitiation for our sins: and
not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
Indeed it does, because if He was the propitiation for the sins of ALL people in the world, then no one in the world has any sin, meaning they are all saved. Is that what you think? But that is TOTALLY unbiblical. The word
propitiation there means "atonement" and it goes without saying (
or should) that if Christ had atoned for the sins of all in the world, then none in the world would have sins. The Apostle is saying not only for our (
the Jews) only, but for the whole world. Q.E.D., He was not the propitiation for every single person in the world, but every single person in the world who had their sins atoned for, it was done by Christ. There is none other name whereby it could happen. Again, as it is written:
Matthew 1:21
- "And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save His people from their sins."
Because He will save all people from their sins? No, that He would
save His people. And His people are those of the whole world to Jesus Christ, not just Israel. Selah!
No, you are only interested in cherry picking the scriptures that you think support those doctrines whlie ignoring may others.
You think? Is that what I am doing above?
You are misinterpreeting all of the passages you quote.
I do not think so.
No but I am a witness of God's Word that offends you. Selah.