Exploring Anti-trinitarian Logic

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Magdala

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"God is Love" (1 Jn. 4:8;16)

"God is Spirit" (Jn. 4:24)

"Go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father (the Thought) and of the Son (the Word) and of the Holy Spirit" (Matt. 28:19)

If God isn't one and trine—the Thought (the Father), the Word (the Son), and the Holy Spirit, each working differently, and yet not working in contrary fashion, united as one because They are the same Essence: Love, equal in all respects as regards Divinity, Eternity, Immensity, and Omnipotence, but not confused in relation to one another, but, rather, quite distinct, and One is not the Other, and yet there are not three gods, but a single God, Who in and of Himself has given being to the individual Divine Persons in generating the Son and, by that very act, originating the procession of the Holy Spirit—then what is your explanation for why it was necessary that the Christ (Messiah) be the Word (Jn. 1:1), sent by the Father (Jn. 3:17;34;5:30;6:38;7:28-29;8:29;11:42;12:49;17:3;20:21;1 Jn. 4:9), and be begotten by the Holy Spirit and become human (indicating that prior to becoming human the Word preexisted invisibly and incorporeally), and born of the Virgin (Matt. 1:20, Lk. 1:31;35, Jn. 1:14), rather than be a naturally conceived human by two human parents?
 
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Pierac

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"God is Love" (1 Jn. 4:8;16)

"God is Spirit" (Jn. 4:24)

"Go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit" (Matt. 28:19)

If God isn't triune and one—the Thought (the Father), the Word (the Son), and the Holy Spirit, each distinct, each working differently but not in contrary fashion, united as one because They are the same Essence: Love—then present your explanation for why it was necessary that the Christ (Messiah) be the Word (Jn. 1:1), sent by the Father (Jn. 3:17;34;5:30;6:38;7:28-29;8:29;11:42;12:49;17:3;20:21;1 Jn. 4:9), and be begotten by the Holy Spirit and become human (indicating that prior to becoming human the Word preexisted as not a human), and born of the Virgin (Matt. 1:20, Lk. 1:31;35, Jn. 1:14), rather than be a naturally conceived human.
Mat 28:19 "Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit,

Name - This word of course brings to mind an actual name, such as John Doe. But what does it mean to a Jew.

Name - 1. designates more than the external person; it tends to express his basic character, his personality. We might say it is an emanation of the person himself. 2. authority of, expressing attributes, in acknowledgment or confession of (NABD & VED).

This definition helps us in a verse like John 17:26:

"I (Jesus) made known to them your name and I will make it known."

Jesus obviously did not come to inform the Apostles that God’s name is YHWH. He came to explain God’s character, His attributes, His will, so that we could come to truly know God and follow His ways. This understanding of the word "name" along with the definition of the next word "baptize" will clear up another misunderstood verse.

Baptize - We always think of being baptized in water, either as infants or adults. Yes, this definition is used many times in the New Testament, but there is also another meaning that we must store in the back of our minds.

Baptize - 1. to unite together, to become closely bound to (TGEL & VED).

Now we will put together the definitions of "name" and "baptize" to get the true meaning of Matthew 28:19. Vine’s Expository Dictionary of Old and New Testament Words has this commentary on this verse:

"The phrase in Matthew 28:19, ‘baptize them in the name’ would indicate that the baptized person was closely bound to, or became property of, the one in whose name he was baptized."

With these definitions we can safely paraphrase this verse as follows:

"Go out into the world and introduce or bring them into the knowledge of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit."

Which is exactly what they did. The Apostles had to go into the world and explain to the Gentiles who God is, who the Son (The Messiah) is, and also about the power that they would receive from God’s Spirit. If we take it to mean that we are to water baptize people in the actual name of the Father, Son, and the Holy Spirit, then why is it that no one in the Bible ever uses this formula to water baptize believers?

Act 2:38 Peter said to them, "Repent, and each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.

Act 10:48 And he ordered them to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ. Then they asked him to stay on for a few days.

Act 19:5 When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.


How do you not know these things?
 

Magdala

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Mat 28:19 "Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit,

Name - This word of course brings to mind an actual name, such as John Doe. But what does it mean to a Jew.

Name - 1. designates more than the external person; it tends to express his basic character, his personality. We might say it is an emanation of the person himself. 2. authority of, expressing attributes, in acknowledgment or confession of (NABD & VED).

This definition helps us in a verse like John 17:26:

"I (Jesus) made known to them your name and I will make it known."

Jesus obviously did not come to inform the Apostles that God’s name is YHWH. He came to explain God’s character, His attributes, His will, so that we could come to truly know God and follow His ways. This understanding of the word "name" along with the definition of the next word "baptize" will clear up another misunderstood verse.

Baptize - We always think of being baptized in water, either as infants or adults. Yes, this definition is used many times in the New Testament, but there is also another meaning that we must store in the back of our minds.

Baptize - 1. to unite together, to become closely bound to (TGEL & VED).

Now we will put together the definitions of "name" and "baptize" to get the true meaning of Matthew 28:19. Vine’s Expository Dictionary of Old and New Testament Words has this commentary on this verse:

"The phrase in Matthew 28:19, ‘baptize them in the name’ would indicate that the baptized person was closely bound to, or became property of, the one in whose name he was baptized."

With these definitions we can safely paraphrase this verse as follows:

"Go out into the world and introduce or bring them into the knowledge of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit."

Which is exactly what they did. The Apostles had to go into the world and explain to the Gentiles who God is, who the Son (The Messiah) is, and also about the power that they would receive from God’s Spirit. If we take it to mean that we are to water baptize people in the actual name of the Father, Son, and the Holy Spirit, then why is it that no one in the Bible ever uses this formula to water baptize believers?

Act 2:38 Peter said to them, "Repent, and each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.

Act 10:48 And he ordered them to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ. Then they asked him to stay on for a few days.

Act 19:5 When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.


How do you not know these things?

I didn't say that I don't know things about baptism, but rather want to read your explanation to the question I asked. Do you have one?
 

Pierac

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I didn't say that I don't know things about baptism, but rather want to read your explanation to the question I asked. Do you have one?
Ok...
I have another train of thought for you think about. Is what you're reading into John 1 mostly church tradition? For almost 400 years, we have a read John 1 through the eyes of the Catholic Church. (reinforcing the Trinity). In the New Testament, “the Word” (Logos) happens to be of the masculine gender. Therefore, it's pronoun -"he" in our English translations - is a matter of interpretation, not translation. Did John write concerning “the word” that “he” was in the beginning with God or did he write concerning “the word” that “it” was in the beginning with God? As already stated, in the NT Greek the logos or word is masculine noun. It is okay in English to use “he” to refer back to his masculine noun if there is good contextual reason to do so. But is there good reason to make “the word” a “he” here?

It is a fact that all English translations from the Greek before the King James version of 1611 actually read this way: (notice Him and He are now “It”).

Tyndale 1534:
Joh 1:1 In the beginnynge was the worde and the worde was with God: and the worde was God. 2 The same was in the beginnynge with God. 3 All thinges were made by it and with out it was made nothinge that was made. 4 In it was lyfe and the lyfe was ye lyght of men

Cranmer 1539
John 1:1 IN the begynnynge was the worde and the worde was wyth God: and God was the worde. 2 The same was in the begynnyng with God. 3 All thynges were made by it and without it, was made nothynge that was made. 4 In it was lyfe and the lyfe was the lyght of men

Bishops 1568:
Joh 1:1 In the begynnyng was the worde, & the worde was with God: and that worde was God. 2 The same was in the begynnyng with God. 3 All thynges were made by it: and without it, was made nothyng that was made. 4 In it was lyfe, and the lyfe was the lyght of men,

Geneva 1587:
Joh 1:1 In the beginning was that Word, and that Word was with God, and that Word was God. 2 This same was in the beginning with God. 3 All things were made by it, and without it was made nothing that was made. 4 In it was life, and that life was the light of men.

And now our modern Concordant Literal Version:
Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the word, and the word was toward God, and God was the word. " 2 This was in the beginning toward God. 3 All came into being through it, and apart from it not even one thing came into being which has come into being." 4 In it was life, and the life was the light of men."

The word logos appears many, many more times in this very Gospel of John. And nowhere else do the translators capitalize it or use the masculine personal pronoun "he" to agree with it !

The rest of the New Testament is the same. Logos is variously translated as "statement" (Luke 20:20), “question" (Matt 21:24), "preaching" (1 Tim 5:17), "command" (Gal 5:14), "message" (Luke 4:32), "matter" (Acts 15:6), "reason" (Acts 10:29), so there is actually no reason to make John one say that "the Word" is the person Jesus himself, unless of course the translators are wanting to make a point to. In all cases logos is an “it.”
In the light of this background it is far better to read John's prologue to mean that in the beginning God had a plan, a dream, a grand vision for the world, a reason by which He brought all things into being. This word or plan was expressive of who he is.

"The Word" for John is an “it” not a "he." On one occasion, Jesus is given the name "the word of God" and this is in Revelations 19:13. This name has been given to him after his resurrection and ascension, but we will not find it before his birth. It is not until we come to verse 14 of John's prologue that this logos becomes personal and becomes the son of God, Jesus. "And the Word became flesh." A great plan that God had in his heart from before the creation at last is fulfilled. Be very clear that it does not say that God became flesh.

There is even strong evidence suggesting that John himself reacted to those who were already misusing his gospel to mean that Jesus was himself the Word who had personally preexist the world. When later he wrote his introduction to 1 John, he clearly made the point that what was in the beginning was not a “who” he put it this way: "What was from the beginning, what we have heard, what we have seen with our eyes, what we beheld and our hands handled, concerning the word of life…"

Logos - This word is translated in English as "Word". This word has an actual meaning which has been almost completely lost due to the Greek philosophical interpretation of John 1:1-3 & 14.

who testified to the word of God and to the testimony of Jesus Christ, even to all that he saw. (Rev 1:2)

"I also saw the souls of those who had been beheaded for their testimony to Jesus and for the word (logos) of God." (Rev 20:4)

Notice that they were beheaded for their testimony to Jesus AND for the logos of God.

Jesus and the word of God are not the same thing.

John 12:48 "He who rejects Me and does not receive My sayings, has one (God) who judges him; the word ( logos ) I spoke is what will judge him at the last day.

Again… Jesus spoke the Logos, as He is not the Logos! So who is the Logos? The very next verse tell us!

Joh 12:49 "For I did not speak on My own initiative, but the Father Himself who sent Me has given Me a commandment as to what to say and what to speak.

Jesus is not our Judge, but our savior!

Joh 3:17 "For God did not send the Son into the world to judge the world, but that the world might be saved through Him.

Act 17:30 "Therefore having overlooked the times of ignorance, God is now declaring to men that all people everywhere should repent, 31 because He ( God) has fixed a day in which He will judge the world in righteousness through a Man whom He has appointed, having furnished proof to all men by raising Him from the dead."

Word of God in this verse means God's plan of salvation for us (NAB), i.e. the kingdom of God message. So what does "logos" mean?

Logos - 1. Denotes an internal reasoning process, plan, or intention, as well as an external word. 2. The expression of thought. As embodying a conception or idea (New American Bible (footnote) & Vine’s Expository Dictionary).

According to Liddell and Scott Greek Lexicon, it also means:

Logos - the inward thought which is expressed in the spoken word.

I will give you a brief paraphrase of John 1:1-3 using the definitions for "logos:"

"In the beginning was God's plan, will, or idea for our salvation. It was present in his mind, and God's plan or will possessed all the attributes of God."


The very Trinitarian Roman Catholic New American Bible has this comment on this verse:

"Lack of a definite article with "God" in Greek signifies predication rather than identification."

Predication -
to affirm as a quality or attribute (Webster's Dictionary).

So how does the Word (logos) become flesh in John 1:14? Let me use an example which most of us can relate to. We are all familiar with the expression, "was this baby planned?" Let's say it was planned. You and your wife had a plan to have a baby. You had a logos, a plan. Your plan (logos) became flesh the day that your baby was born. In the same way, God's plan of salvation for us became a reality, became flesh, when Jesus was born. This verse is probably one of the biggest culprits in the creation of the trinity. The reason being that to someone educated in Greek philosophy such as the early church fathers of the 3rd, 4th, and 5th, centuries, logos had an entirely different meaning. Tertullian who was responsible for much of the creation of the trinity was a Stoic lawyer. The Stoics defined "logos" as the "divine principle of life." Which is basically a definition of God. With this definition you are going to arrive at a completely different interpretation than what John intended. You will interpret it something like this:

"In the beginning was the divine principle of life, and the divine principle of life was with God, and the divine principle of life was God. Then, the divine principle of life became flesh."

With this definition you arrive at the conclusion that the divine principle of life, which is God, became flesh. Now you have God's essence in two places at once. The explanation for this obvious problem came in the form of the Doctrine of the Trinity. Then you have God's essence in flesh, so the description of Jesus becomes that he is fully God and fully man. These concepts come straight out of Greek philosophy. Greek philosophers believed that man was composed of flesh and a divine spark.

John 12:48 "He who rejects Me and does not receive My sayings, has one who judges him; the word ( logos ) I spoke is what will judge him at the last day.

Again… Jesus spoke the Logos, He is not the Logos!
 
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Magdala

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So how does the Word (logos) become flesh in John 1:14? Let me use an example which most of us can relate to. We are all familiar with the expression, "was this baby planned?" Let's say it was planned. You and your wife had a plan to have a baby. You had a logos, a plan. Your plan (logos) became flesh the day that your baby was born. In the same way, God's plan of salvation for us became a reality, became flesh, when Jesus was born.

[Note: due to character limit, I couldn't quote your post in full.]

The Koine Greek word "σὰρξ" (flesh) doesn't have the definition "become a reality". See below.

Forms of the word
Dictionary:
σάρξ, σαρκός, ἡ
Greek transliteration: sarx
Simplified transliteration: sarx

Numbers
Strong's number:
4561
GK Number: 4922

Statistics
Frequency in New Testament:
147
Morphology of Biblical Greek Tag: n-3b(1)

Gloss: flesh, body

Definition:
flesh, body, the soft tissue of a creature, often in contrast to bone, ligament, or sinew; by extension human, humankind, with a focus on the fallen human nature, which is frail and corrupt in contrast to immaterial (spiritual) things, thus the NIV (1984) translation sinful nature.

flesh, Lk. 24:39; Jn. 3:6; the human body, 2 Cor. 7:5; flesh, human nature, human frame, Jn. 1:13, 14; 1 Pet. 4:1; 1 Jn. 4:2; kindred, Rom. 11:14; lineage, Rom. 1:3; 9:3; flesh, humanity, human beings, Mt. 24:22; Lk. 3:6; Jn. 17:2; the circumstances of the body, material condition, 1 Cor. 5:5; 7:28; Phlm. 16; flesh, mere humanity, human fashion, 1 Cor. 1:26; 2 Cor. 1:17; flesh as the seat of passion and frailty, Rom. 8:1, 3, 5; carnality, Gal. 5:24; materiality, material circumstance, as opposed to the spiritual, Phil. 3:3, 4; Col. 2:18; a material system or mode, Gal. 3:3; Heb. 9:10

Therefore, John wrote that the Word became human, indicating that prior to becoming human, the Word preexisted invisibly and incorporeally. And, was John not referring to the one begotten by the Holy Spirit, born of the Virgin, and named "Jesus" when he wrote that the Word became human, lived among them, and was testified about by John the Baptist? (Jn. 1:14-15)
 
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Aunty Jane

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The Koine Greek word "σὰρξ" (flesh) doesn't have the definition "become a reality". See below.



As you can see, John wrote that the Word became flesh, as in a human, indicating that prior to becoming human the Word preexisted as not a human. And, is John not referring to the one begotten by the Holy Spirit, born of the Virgin, and named "Jesus" when speaking of the Word that became human, lived among them, and was testified about by John the Baptist (Jn. 1:14-15)?
The Word did indeed ‘become flesh and dwelt among humankind’…..but the Word was not “ho theos”…”God” with a capital “G”…he was just “theos” which means divine.…”a god” small “g”.
The son was the “holy servant” of his superior Father. (Acts 4:27) How can God be his own servant?

Jesus could be “divine” without being “deity”. He had a pre-existence in heaven with his Father before coming to earth as a redeemer for mankind. Why did God send his son? Because the Father is an immortal and cannot die…..his son was not, and could offer his human life for the one Adam lost for us.
 

Magdala

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Jesus could be “divine” without being “deity”.

Considering the definitions of the Koine Greek word below, what do you mean when you say that Jesus was divine?

Forms of the word
Dictionary:
θεῖος, α, ον
Greek transliteration: theios
Simplified transliteration: theios

Numbers
Strong's number:
2304
GK Number: 2521

Statistics
Frequency in New Testament:
3
Morphology of Biblical Greek Tag: a-1a(1)
Gloss: divine

Definition: divine, pertaining to God
, 2 Pet. 1:3, 4; τὸ θειον, the divine nature, divinity, Acts 17:29*

The Word did indeed ‘become flesh and dwelt among humankind’…..
He had a pre-existence in heaven with his Father before coming to earth as a redeemer for mankind.

So, you're saying that the Word became human and was named "Jesus", and that prior to becoming human, the Word preexisted invisibly and incorporeally?
 
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Aunty Jane

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Considering the definitions of the Koine Greek word below, what do you mean when you say that Jesus was divine?
According to Strongs Concordance the primary definition of “theos” used in John 1:1 is….
  1. “a god or goddess, a general name of deities or divinities.”
It can also mean….
  1. “spoken of the only and true God
    1. refers to the things of God
    2. his counsels, interests, things due to him
  2. whatever can in any respect be likened unto God, or resemble him in any way
    1. God's representative or viceregent
      1. of magistrates and judges”

So the limited definition of this word is not what most people have been led to believe it is.
Since Strongs differentiates between “deities and divinities“, we can see that they do not mean the same thing.
Jesus can be “divine” without being “deity”.

John 1:1 doesn’t mean what most people think it says. “Ho theos” is how God (Yahweh) is defined, but “theos” can have a totally different meaning as John 10:31-36 demonstrates. God himself calls human judges “gods” (theos) because they represented his authority.….just as Jesus came to represent his Father in human form….he was a teacher of all that his Father taught him.…and he offered his mortal human life to pay for Adam’s sin.

So, you're saying that the Word became a human and was named "Jesus", and that prior to becoming a human, the Word preexisted in Heaven invisibly and incorporeally?
Yes, as God’s firstborn son, Col 1:15 tells us that he was “before” all creation, being the first and only direct creation of his God and Father. (Rev 3:14) All other things were created through the son…..this is agency, as John 1:2-3 confirms.
 
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Magdala

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According to Strongs Concordance the primary definition of “theos” used in John 1:1 is….
  1. “a god or goddess, a general name of deities or divinities.”
It can also mean….
  1. “spoken of the only and true God
    1. refers to the things of God
    2. his counsels, interests, things due to him
  2. whatever can in any respect be likened unto God, or resemble him in any way
    1. God's representative or viceregent
      1. of magistrates and judges”

I didn't refer to the Koine Greek word "theos", but rather "theios". So, considering the definitions below of the Koine Greek word "theios", what do you mean when you say that Jesus was divine?

Forms of the word
Dictionary:
θεῖος, α, ον
Greek transliteration: theios
Simplified transliteration: theios

Numbers
Strong's number:
2304
GK Number: 2521

Statistics
Frequency in New Testament:
3
Morphology of Biblical Greek Tag: a-1a(1)
Gloss: divine

Definition: divine, pertaining to God
, 2 Pet. 1:3, 4; τὸ θειον, the divine nature, divinity, Acts 17:29*

Yes [...]

I agree that the Word became a human and was named "Jesus", and that prior to becoming human, the Word preexisted invisibly and incorporeally. So, if you have one, what is your explanation for why it was necessary that the Christ (Messiah) be the Word, and be begotten by the Holy Spirit and become human, and be born of the Virgin, rather than be a naturally conceived human by two human parents?
 
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Taken

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"God is Love" (1 Jn. 4:8;16)

"God is Spirit" (Jn. 4:24)

"Go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit" (Matt. 28:19)

If God isn't triune and one—the Thought (the Father), the Word (the Son), and the Holy Spirit, each working differently, and yet not working in contrary fashion, united as one because They are the same Essence: Love, equal in all respects as regards Divinity, Eternity, Immensity, and Omnipotence, but not confused in relation to one another, but, rather, quite distinct, and One is not the Other, and yet there are not three gods, but a single God, Who in and of Himself has given being to the individual Divine Persons in generating the Son and, by that very act, originating the procession of the Holy Spirit—then present your explanation for why it was necessary that the Christ (Messiah) be the Word (Jn. 1:1), sent by the Father (Jn. 3:17;34;5:30;6:38;7:28-29;8:29;11:42;12:49;17:3;20:21;1 Jn. 4:9), and be begotten by the Holy Spirit and become human (indicating that prior to becoming human the Word preexisted as not a human), and born of the Virgin (Matt. 1:20, Lk. 1:31;35, Jn. 1:14), rather than be a naturally conceived human by two human parents?
Agree… with an exception…

“Become human”….no.

God is Spirit, the Creator. The creator does not become the Created and the Created does not become God.

God (who is Spirit) and angels who were created spirits…have the ability and Power to Appear in”the Likeness as a human man (who is dust of the earth).

God has numerous times, in ancient days and historical days appeared to human men, in the Likeness as a human, even called a man (by human men)…and sometimes, called an Angel.

Angels still appear to human men in the likeness as a human man, and human men know not the difference.

Regarding Jesus:
Phil 2:
[8] And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.

Regarding angels: example
Heb 13:
[2] Be not forgetful to entertain strangers: for thereby some have entertained angels unawares.

God bless you,
Glory to God,

Taken
 
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Magdala

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“Become human”….no.

The following Koine Greek word is used in Jn. 1:14:

Forms of the word
Dictionary:
σάρξ, σαρκός, ἡ
Greek transliteration: sarx
Simplified transliteration: sarx

Numbers
Strong's number:
4561
GK Number: 4922

Statistics
Frequency in New Testament:
147
Morphology of Biblical Greek Tag: n-3b(1)

Gloss: flesh, body

Definition:
flesh, body, the soft tissue of a creature, often in contrast to bone, ligament, or sinew; by extension human, humankind, with a focus on the fallen human nature, which is frail and corrupt in contrast to immaterial (spiritual) things, thus the NIV (1984) translation sinful nature.

flesh, Lk. 24:39; Jn. 3:6; the human body, 2 Cor. 7:5; flesh, human nature, human frame, Jn. 1:13, 14; 1 Pet. 4:1; 1 Jn. 4:2; kindred, Rom. 11:14; lineage, Rom. 1:3; 9:3; flesh, humanity, human beings, Mt. 24:22; Lk. 3:6; Jn. 17:2; the circumstances of the body, material condition, 1 Cor. 5:5; 7:28; Phlm. 16; flesh, mere humanity, human fashion, 1 Cor. 1:26; 2 Cor. 1:17; flesh as the seat of passion and frailty, Rom. 8:1, 3, 5; carnality, Gal. 5:24; materiality, material circumstance, as opposed to the spiritual, Phil. 3:3, 4; Col. 2:18; a material system or mode, Gal. 3:3; Heb. 9:10

Therefore, when John wrote that the Word became flesh, he was saying that the Word became human, indicating that prior to becoming human, the Word preexisted invisibly and incorporeally. The Word is the only Person of the Holy Trinity that became human, the Thought (the Father) and the Holy Spirit remain invisible and incorporeal, but They are seen in the works which were or are carried out by Them.
 
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Taken

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The following Koine Greek word is used in Jn. 1:14:



Therefore, when John wrote that the Word became flesh, he was saying that the Word became a human, indicating that prior to becoming a human, the Word preexisted invisibly and incorporeally. The Word is the only Person of the Holy Trinity that became a human, the Thought (the Father) and the Holy Spirit remain invisible and incorporeal, but They are seen in the works which were or are carried out by Them.
Disagree.

Humans come from the dust of the Earth and return to dust of the Earth.

Gods Word came fourth out from Gods Mouth, in a body God prepared for when His Word would come to this World, in the Likeness AS a (Jewish) man, for Earthly men to See, Given a name by Gods Authority and Gods Word Returned to His Kingdom, above this World.

All Scriptural knowledge.

Glory to God,
Taken
 

Magdala

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Disagree.

Humans come from the dust of the Earth and return to dust of the Earth.

Gods Word came fourth out from Gods Mouth, in a body God prepared for when His Word would come to this World, in the Likeness AS a (Jewish) man, for Earthly men to See, Given a name by Gods Authority and Gods Word Returned to His Kingdom, above this World.

All Scriptural knowledge.

Glory to God,
Taken

According to the definition of the Koine Greek word "σάρξ" used in Jn. 1:14, John said that the Word became human, indicating that prior to becoming human, the Word preexisted invisibly and incorporeally. You can say that you disagree, but that's what John wrote.

Regarding Adam and Eve, neither were conceived by two human parents like you and I were, yet they were humans too, just as the Word became human, despite not being naturally conceived by two human parents.
 
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Ronald David Bruno

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"God is Love" (1 Jn. 4:8;16)

"God is Spirit" (Jn. 4:24)

"Go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit" (Matt. 28:19)

If God isn't triune and one—the Thought (the Father), the Word (the Son), and the Holy Spirit, each working differently, and yet not working in contrary fashion, united as one because They are the same Essence: Love, equal in all respects as regards Divinity, Eternity, Immensity, and Omnipotence, but not confused in relation to one another, but, rather, quite distinct, and One is not the Other, and yet there are not three gods, but a single God, Who in and of Himself has given being to the individual Divine Persons in generating the Son and, by that very act, originating the procession of the Holy Spirit—then present your explanation for why it was necessary that the Christ (Messiah) be the Word (Jn. 1:1), sent by the Father (Jn. 3:17;34;5:30;6:38;7:28-29;8:29;11:42;12:49;17:3;20:21;1 Jn. 4:9), and be begotten by the Holy Spirit and become human (indicating that prior to becoming human the Word preexisted invisibly and incorporeally), and born of the Virgin (Matt. 1:20, Lk. 1:31;35, Jn. 1:14), rather than be a naturally conceived human by two human parents?
Some supportive views by the early fathers:
 
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Ronald David Bruno

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"God is Love" (1 Jn. 4:8;16)

"God is Spirit" (Jn. 4:24)

"Go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit" (Matt. 28:19)

If God isn't one and trine—the Thought (the Father), the Word (the Son), and the Holy Spirit, each working differently, and yet not working in contrary fashion, united as one because They are the same Essence: Love, equal in all respects as regards Divinity, Eternity, Immensity, and Omnipotence, but not confused in relation to one another, but, rather, quite distinct, and One is not the Other, and yet there are not three gods, but a single God, Who in and of Himself has given being to the individual Divine Persons in generating the Son and, by that very act, originating the procession of the Holy Spirit—then present your explanation for why it was necessary that the Christ (Messiah) be the Word (Jn. 1:1), sent by the Father (Jn. 3:17;34;5:30;6:38;7:28-29;8:29;11:42;12:49;17:3;20:21;1 Jn. 4:9), and be begotten by the Holy Spirit and become human (indicating that prior to becoming human the Word preexisted invisibly and incorporeally), and born of the Virgin (Matt. 1:20, Lk. 1:31;35, Jn. 1:14), rather than be a naturally conceived human by two human parents?
Non-Trinitarian logic is an oxymoron, should have worded it another way.
It is ironic that the word logic comes from logos. But when we delve deeper into the meaning of LOGOS, as presented in John 1, it goes beyond words, even the totality of expression of the SUPREME BEING, ALL the information in His MIND. No, it is THE DIVINE TOTALLITY OF HIS BEING, HIS MIND, WILL, EMOTIONS, POWER AND SPIRIT. GOD emptied Himself into a human, He became flesh and dwelt among us. This is difficult to conceive. Jesus knew this, that His equality with His Father would be difficult to grasp.
We can grasp that we have a soul that became flesh. We grasp that our spirit was dead and now born again, yet still residing our flesh. We also grasp God's Spirit dwells in our spiritual temple as well. NON-Trinis have difficulty with these concepts and it is almost a futile debate with them. The only logic behind this is that they have not received Jesus as their God and therefore Jesus has not baptized them with the Holy Spirit, who in turn gives discernment.
 
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Taken

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@Ronald David Bruno

So the Creator becomes the Created, because the Creator has the Power to Appear AS a created man?

Created Angels also have the power to Appear AS Created men…are they also then Human men?

Created human MALES have the ability to Appear AS human FEMALES…are they then Human Females?

Created human FEMALES have the ability to Appear AS human MALES…are they then Human Males?

Created Humans have the ability to Appear AS Animals …are they then Animals?

There is a Huge difference between the meanings of “AS” and “IS”.

It is neither Logical, Scientific or Scriptural that the Creator becomes the Created.

As, yes.
Is, no.

Glory to God,
Taken
 

Magdala

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Non-Trinitarian logic is an oxymoron, should have worded it another way.

oxymoron
:
a combination of contradictory or incongruous words (such as cruel kindness)

broadly : something (such as a concept) that is made up of contradictory or incongruous elements

I said "Exploring Anti-trinitarian Logic" which isn't a combination of contradictory words.
 

Ronald David Bruno

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So the Creator becomes the Created, because the Creator has the Power to Appear AS a created man?
Wow Taken ..., all this time I thought you were a Trinitarian ...
God the Creator ( glad you emphasized that, since Col. 1:16-17 tells us that Jesus is the Creator), is Spirit. His Spirit occupied a human vessel - is that difficult for you? My spirit occupies my fleshly body. He created a fetus in a womb (as He has done billions of times - only that time, instead of a new soul/spirit, He occupies the flesh Himself. Capisce?
Created Angels also have the power to Appear AS Created men…are they also then Human men?
Now you are stretching to find relative support for your position. Nothing is relative or can be compared to the Virgin conception and birth.
Created human MALES have the ability to Appear AS human FEMALES…are they then Human Females?
And some people have the ability to discern what John 1 means ... and some don't.
 
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Ronald David Bruno

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I said "Exploring Anti-trinitarian Logic" which isn't a combination of contradictory words.
Anti or Non-Trinitarian to me is not logic, hence my assertion that they are contradictory. Hey ... I'm on your side ... It was a plug against them.
 
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