As you say, John says, "The word was God." But what he doesn't say is that the "word" is a person. The Greek word "logos" refers to a function of the mind and rationality, such as plan, argument, script, account, etc. How does a plan become flesh?
In
Jn. 1:14 we read, "
And the Word flesh became and dwelt among us", the same Word identified as God 13 verses prior in
Jn. 1:1. Who sent the Word to become a human? The Thought (the Father, God). How did the Word become human? The Word was conceived by the Holy Spirit (God). What name was given to the Word (God) that became human? "Jesus".
Jesus [...] argued that he healed on the Sabbath because doing good on the Sabbath was expected of God.
Jesus healed a man on the Sabbath and said, “
My Father is working until now,
and I Myself am working", and "therefore the Jews (the Judaeans, a mixture of scribes, Pharisees and Sadducees) sought all the more to kill him,
because he not only broke the Sabbath, but also
called God his own Father, making himself equal with God." (
Jn. 5:1-18, cf. Potmg: V2)
Jesus [...] defended his assertion that Abraham looked forward to the coming of Jesus because God planned to send Jesus as the means to the blessing of salvation before Abraham was born.
Jesus said that Abraham
did see His day, as in prophetically, through a Grace of God, and that he rejoiced. That's why the Judaeans responded to Him asking, "You are not yet fifty years old and You are telling us that Abraham has seen You and You have seen him?", and Jesus answered in the affirmative explaining that He exists eternally, "[...]
before Abraham was born I am" (
Jn. 8:56-58,
cf. Potmg: V4). Jesus's reply is significant, because only
God says "I am" as He is
eternal:
"And
God spoke to Moses,
saying,
l AM THE BEING; and he said, Thus shall ye
say to the children of Israel,
THE BEING has sent me to you. And God said again to Moses, thus shalt thou
say to the sons of Israel,
the Lord God of our fathers,
the God of Abraham, and
God of Isaac, and
God of Jacob,
has sent me to you:
this is My name for ever, and my memorial to generations of generations" (English translation from
The Tanakh,
Ex. 3:14-15). It was understood that Jesus said He's God, and thus they
took up stones to throw at Him for "blasphemy". (
Jn. 8:59,
cf. Potmg: V4)
In this instance, their motive wasn't justice but envy and murder.
The motive for the Judaeans
attempting to stone Jesus for "blasphemy" in the scene of
Jn. 10:22-39 (cf. Potmg: V4) is made clear by them when they gave Him their explanation for doing so: "
because you, being a man, make yourself God", right after He had stated that (I) He's the Son of God, (II) He and the Father are one, and (III) the Father is in Him, and that He is in the Father, and so on.
The Pharisee's accusation was based on their belief that the Messiah would be an angel or a theophany [...]
False. Prior to Jesus's trial, at one point Jesus asked the Pharisees, "According to you, what do you think of the Christ (Messiah)? Whose son is He?", and they answered, "the descendant of David", not "an angel, or a theophany". Jesus didn't correct them, because they answered rightly, but He did challenge the implications of their answer by quoting Ps. 110 and asking, "How, then, does David, inspired by God, call Him "Lord" saying: 'The Lord said to my Lord: 'Sit at my right hand until I make Your enemies a footstool for You?' So if David calls the Christ "Lord", how can the Christ be his son?". Ps. 110, written by David, was about the Messiah. Breaking it down, David writes that the Lord (God) said to David's Lord (Christ) "sit at My right hand (the place of greatest honor). Jesus asked the Pharisees why David would call his "son," meaning his own descendant, "my Lord" who sits at the right hand of God, unless Christ has some significant status beyond being David's descendant. The Pharisees didn't respond. (
Matt. 22:41-46,
cf. Potmg: V5)
In addition to the Pharisees, the Sadducees, elders, scribes, and priests would've also been familiar with the Messianic prophecies, and thus also rightly believed that the Christ (Messiah) would be a descendant of David. Therefore, at Jesus's trial, the High Priest, Caiphas, and other members of the Sanhedrin present, would've understood that when he asked Jesus,
"Are you the Christ (Messiah), the Son of God?", he was asking to see if Jesus would once again affirm that He's not only the Christ (Messiah), but God in the flesh as well (someone more than solely a descendant of king David).
Jesus affirmed that He's the Christ (Messiah), and
the Son of God, and thus
they accused Him of "blasphemy",
and called for His death. (
Matt. 26:57-68,
Lk. 22:66-71,
cf. Potmg: V5)
There are other scenes show that Jesus is God as well, for example:
"[
God] [...]
alone treadeth upon the waves of the sea" (
Job. 9:8)
[...] they saw
Jesus walking on the sea (
Jn. 6:19,
cf. Potmg: V1)
[...] he cried with a loud voice, “Lazarus, come out!”
He who was dead came out [...]
The chief priests therefore and the Pharisees gathered a council, and said, “What are we doing? For this man does many signs.
So
from that day forward they took counsel that they might put him to death. (
Jn. 11: 41-53,
cf. Potmg: V5)
“Who are you looking for?” asks Jesus
They answered him, “Jesus of Nazareth.”
When therefore he said to them, “
I am He,”
they went backward, and fell to the ground. (
Jn. 18:4-6,
cf. Potmg: V5)
The phrase "son of God" indicates his position, i.e. second in authority to God.
When you say that Jesus's title "the Son of God" means "second in authority", what does that mean to you?